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ACTUAL CPC MOCK QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 2026 SET 1

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Mock questions and answers are arguably the most critical component of a successful preparation strategy for the Certified Professional Coder (CPC) exam. Because the exam is less about memorization and more about speed and accurate application of coding manuals, mock tests serve as a dress rehearsal for the high-pressure environment of the actual test day. Passing the CPC requires a score of 70% (70 out of 100 questions correct) within a tight 4-hour window. Here is how mocks specifically bridge the gap between studying and passing

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CPC-MOCK-1
Time -4 hours Marks -100


Medical Terminology:

1. The suffix –ectomy means
a. To cut into
b. Surgical removal
c. A permanent opening
d. Surgical repair

2. The acronym MMRV stands for
a. Measles, Mumps, and Rubella vaccine
b. Measles, Mumps, and Rosella vaccine
c. Measles, Mumps, Rubella, and Varicella
d. Measles, Mumps, Rosella, and Varicella

3. MRI stands for
a. Micro-wave Recording Instrument
b. Medical Recording Instrument
c. Magnetic Resolution Image
d. Magnetic Resonance Imaging

4. The term “Salpingo-Oophorectomy” refers to
a. The removal of the fallopian tubes and ovaries
b. The surgical sampling or removal of a fertilized egg
c. Cutting into the fallopian tubes and ovaries for surgical purposes
d. Cutting into a fertilized egg for surgical purposes

Anatomy:

5. The Radius is the
a. Outer bone located in the forearm
b. Outer bone located in the lower leg
c. Inner bone located in the forearm
d. Inner bone located in the lower leg

6. The spleen belongs to what organ system?
a. Endocrine
b. Hemic and Lymphatic
c. Digestive
d. Nervous

7. The portion of the femur bone that helps makes up the kneecap is considered what?
a. The posterior portion
b. The proximal portion
c. The distal portion
d. The dorsal portion

8. How many regions are in the abdominopelvic cavity?
a. Four
b. Six

, c. Eight
d. Nine
Coding Concepts:

9. CPT codes 22840-22848 are modifier 62 exempt?
a. True
b. False

10. Wound exploration codes include the following service(s):
a. Exploration and repair
b. Exploration, including enlargement, removal of foreign bodies, repair
c. Exploration, including enlargement, repair, and necessary grafting
d. Exploration, including enlargement, debridement, removal of foreign bodies, minor vessel
ligation, and repair

11. The full description of CPT code 24925 is:
a. Secondary closure or scar revision
b. Amputation, secondary closure or scar revision
c. Amputation, arm through humerus; secondary closure or scar revision
d. Amputation, arm through humerus; with primary closure, secondary closure or scar
revision

12. What is NOT included in CPT® surgical package?

A. Typical postoperative follow-up care
B. One related Evaluation and Management service on the same date of the procedure
C. Returning to the operating room the next day for a complication resulting from the initial
procedure
D. Evaluating the patient in the post-anesthesia recovery area


13. Which of the following statements is false?
a. External Causes of Morbidity Codes are in the range V01- Y99.
b. You may assign as many external cause codes as necessary.
c. External cause codes are only used in the initial encounter.
d. External cause codes can never be a principal diagnosis.

14. Which of the following codes allows for the use of modifier 51?
a. 20975
b. 93600
c. 31500
d. 45392

15. Category III codes are temporary codes for emerging technology, services, and procedures. If a
category III code exists, it should be used instead of an “unlisted procedure” code in category I
(example of an unlisted category I code: 60699).
a. True
b. False
c.
ICD-10-CM:

, 16. What is the correct ICD-10-CM code(s) for malignant hypertension with stage III kidney
disease?
a. I10, N18.30
b. I12.9
c. I10
d. I12.9, N18.3
17. Lucy was standing on a chair in her apartment’s kitchen trying to change a light bulb when she
slipped and fell. She struck the glass top stove, which shattered. She presents to the ER with a simple
laceration to her left forearm that has embedded glass particles.
a. S51.812A, W18.02XA, W25.XXXA, Y92.030
b. S51.822A, W18.02XA, W25.XXXA, Y92.030, Y93.E9
c. S51.812A, Y92.030, W07.XXXA, W25.XXXA
d. S51.822A, W07.XXXA, W25.XXXA, Y93.E9, Y92.030

18. Jim was at a bonfire when he tripped and fell into the flames and sustained multiple burns. He
came to the emergency room via ambulance. He was treated for second and third degree burns on his
face, second degree burns on his upper arms and forearms and third degree burns on the fronts of his
thighs.
a. T20.20XA, T20.30XA, T22.259A, T22.219A, T24.319A, T31.42, X03.0XXA
b. T20.30XA, T24.319A, T22.299A, T31.42, X03.0XXA
c. T20.09XA, T22.099A, T24.099A, T31.64, X03.0XXA
d. T20.30XA, T22.299A, T24.319A, T31.64, X03.0XXA

19. A 35-year-old woman who is pregnant in her 38th week with her first child is admitted to the
hospital. She experiences a prolonged labor during the first stage and eventually births a healthy baby
boy.
a. O63.0, O09.519, Z37.0
b. O80, Z37.0
c. O80, O63.0, O09.519, Z37.0
d. O63.0, O09.513, Z37.0

20. Henry was playing baseball and slid into second base, where he collided with another player. He
presents to the emergency room complaining of pain in the distal portion of his right middle finger,
which is swollen and deformed. The physician orders an x-ray and diagnoses Henry with a displaced
tuft fracture. He splints the finger, prescribes narcotics for pain and instructs Henry to follow up with
an orthopedist in two weeks.
a. S62.632A, Y93.64, W51.XXXA, Y92.320
b. S62.662A, Y93.64, W03.XXXA, Y92.320
c. S62.392A, Y93.64, W51.XXXA, Y92.320
d. S62.632A, Y93.67, W03.XXXA, Y92.320


HCPCS:

21. A patient has a home health aide come to his home to clean and dress a burn on his lower leg.
The aide uses a special absorptive sterile dressing to 50 sq cm area. She also covers a 38 sq cm area
with a self-adhesive sterile gauze pad.
a. A6204, A6403
b. A6252, A6403
c. A6252 c. A6219
d. A6204, A6219

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