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Regis College NU661 NU 661 Actual Exam
Questions and Answers with Rationales
2026/2027 | Primary Care Childbearing
Woman Final Exam | Women's Health NP |
Pass Guarantee
Q001: A 28-year-old G2P1 presents at 8 weeks gestation with vaginal bleeding and
abdominal cramping. Transvaginal ultrasound shows no fetal heartbeat at 7 weeks
gestational age and closed cervical os. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Options:
A. Threatened abortion
B. Inevitable abortion
C. Missed abortion - CORRECT
D. Complete abortion
ANSWER: C
Q002: A 32-year-old G3P2 at 18 weeks gestation presents with dark brown vaginal
discharge for 3 days. Transabdominal ultrasound shows an empty uterus with no
adnexal masses. Serum hCG is 120,000 mIU/mL. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
Options:
A. Missed abortion
B. Hydatidiform mole - CORRECT
C. Ectopic pregnancy
D. Subchorionic hemorrhage
ANSWER: B
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Q003: A 26-year-old pregnant patient at 10 weeks gestation asks about genetic
screening options. Which test is performed between 11-14 weeks gestation for
aneuploidy screening?
Options:
A. Amniocentesis
B. Chorionic villus sampling
C. First trimester combined screening (nuchal translucency + PAPP-A + hCG) -
CORRECT
D. Quad screen
ANSWER: C
Q004: A 30-year-old G1P0 at 28 weeks gestation presents with right-sided flank
pain, fever 101.5°F, and dysuria. Urinalysis shows WBCs and positive nitrites.
What is the most appropriate management?
Options:
A. Oral cephalexin for 3 days
B. Hospital admission for IV antibiotics - CORRECT
C. Observe and recheck urine in 1 week
D. Nitrofurantoin for 7 days
ANSWER: B
Q005: A 34-year-old G2P1 at 20 weeks gestation presents with severe headache,
BP 160/110 mmHg, and 3+ proteinuria. Deep tendon reflexes are 3+ with clonus.
What is the definitive management?
Options:
A. Oral labetalol and magnesium sulfate
B. Intravenous hydralazine and strict bedrest
C. Immediate delivery regardless of gestational age - CORRECT
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D. Expectant management with weekly NSTs
ANSWER: C
Q006: A 29-year-old G1 at 16 weeks gestation presents with painless vaginal
bleeding. Ultrasound shows placenta previa. What is the most important counseling
point?
Options:
A. Schedule amniocentesis at 20 weeks
B. Pelvic rest and no intercourse - CORRECT
C. Begin weekly cervical checks
D. Plan for vaginal delivery
ANSWER: B
Q007: A 27-year-old G2P1001 at 34 weeks gestation presents with decreased fetal
movement for 24 hours. Non-stress test shows absent fetal heart rate accelerations
and recurrent late decelerations. What is the next step?
Options:
A. Biophysical profile
B. Continue NST for another 30 minutes
C. Immediate delivery - CORRECT
D. Oxytocin challenge test
ANSWER: C
Q008: A 31-year-old G3P2002 at 39 weeks gestation presents with regular
contractions every 5 minutes lasting 60 seconds. Cervical exam shows 4 cm
dilation, 80% effacement, and -2 station. What is the stage of labor?
Options:
A. Latent phase of first stage - CORRECT
B. Active phase of first stage
Regis College NU661 NU 661 Actual Exam
Questions and Answers with Rationales
2026/2027 | Primary Care Childbearing
Woman Final Exam | Women's Health NP |
Pass Guarantee
Q001: A 28-year-old G2P1 presents at 8 weeks gestation with vaginal bleeding and
abdominal cramping. Transvaginal ultrasound shows no fetal heartbeat at 7 weeks
gestational age and closed cervical os. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Options:
A. Threatened abortion
B. Inevitable abortion
C. Missed abortion - CORRECT
D. Complete abortion
ANSWER: C
Q002: A 32-year-old G3P2 at 18 weeks gestation presents with dark brown vaginal
discharge for 3 days. Transabdominal ultrasound shows an empty uterus with no
adnexal masses. Serum hCG is 120,000 mIU/mL. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
Options:
A. Missed abortion
B. Hydatidiform mole - CORRECT
C. Ectopic pregnancy
D. Subchorionic hemorrhage
ANSWER: B
, 2
Q003: A 26-year-old pregnant patient at 10 weeks gestation asks about genetic
screening options. Which test is performed between 11-14 weeks gestation for
aneuploidy screening?
Options:
A. Amniocentesis
B. Chorionic villus sampling
C. First trimester combined screening (nuchal translucency + PAPP-A + hCG) -
CORRECT
D. Quad screen
ANSWER: C
Q004: A 30-year-old G1P0 at 28 weeks gestation presents with right-sided flank
pain, fever 101.5°F, and dysuria. Urinalysis shows WBCs and positive nitrites.
What is the most appropriate management?
Options:
A. Oral cephalexin for 3 days
B. Hospital admission for IV antibiotics - CORRECT
C. Observe and recheck urine in 1 week
D. Nitrofurantoin for 7 days
ANSWER: B
Q005: A 34-year-old G2P1 at 20 weeks gestation presents with severe headache,
BP 160/110 mmHg, and 3+ proteinuria. Deep tendon reflexes are 3+ with clonus.
What is the definitive management?
Options:
A. Oral labetalol and magnesium sulfate
B. Intravenous hydralazine and strict bedrest
C. Immediate delivery regardless of gestational age - CORRECT
, 3
D. Expectant management with weekly NSTs
ANSWER: C
Q006: A 29-year-old G1 at 16 weeks gestation presents with painless vaginal
bleeding. Ultrasound shows placenta previa. What is the most important counseling
point?
Options:
A. Schedule amniocentesis at 20 weeks
B. Pelvic rest and no intercourse - CORRECT
C. Begin weekly cervical checks
D. Plan for vaginal delivery
ANSWER: B
Q007: A 27-year-old G2P1001 at 34 weeks gestation presents with decreased fetal
movement for 24 hours. Non-stress test shows absent fetal heart rate accelerations
and recurrent late decelerations. What is the next step?
Options:
A. Biophysical profile
B. Continue NST for another 30 minutes
C. Immediate delivery - CORRECT
D. Oxytocin challenge test
ANSWER: C
Q008: A 31-year-old G3P2002 at 39 weeks gestation presents with regular
contractions every 5 minutes lasting 60 seconds. Cervical exam shows 4 cm
dilation, 80% effacement, and -2 station. What is the stage of labor?
Options:
A. Latent phase of first stage - CORRECT
B. Active phase of first stage
