2025 LATEST ATI RN/PN MATERNAL
NEWBORN STUDY GUIDE FINAL TEST
BANK EXAM WITH NGN QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT ANSWERS
Instructions: Choose the best answer for each question. Explanations are
provided for the correct answer and why the other options are incorrect.
1. A newborn is born at 32 weeks gestation. The nurse notes the infant has
weak muscle tone, minimal reflexes, and respiratory distress. Which is the
priority nursing intervention?
A. Swaddle the infant
B. Initiate Kangaroo care
C. Provide respiratory support (oxygen or CPAP)
D. Encourage maternal bonding
Explanation:
Correct: C – Preterm infants often have immature lungs, making
respiratory support a priority.
A: Swaddling is supportive but not priority over respiratory compromise.
B: Kangaroo care is beneficial but should be delayed until the infant is
stabilized.
D: Maternal bonding is important but secondary to airway and breathing.
2. A client at 28 weeks gestation presents with vaginal bleeding and
cramping. Which condition should the nurse suspect?
,2025 LATEST ATI RN/PN MATERNAL
NEWBORN STUDY GUIDE FINAL TEST
BANK EXAM WITH NGN QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT ANSWERS
A. Placenta previa
B. Preeclampsia
C. Ectopic pregnancy
D. Uterine rupture
Explanation:
Correct: A – Painless vaginal bleeding in the third trimester is classic for
placenta previa.
B: Preeclampsia presents with hypertension, edema, and proteinuria, not
painless bleeding.
C: Ectopic pregnancy usually occurs in the first trimester with unilateral
pain.
D: Uterine rupture is rare and presents with sudden severe pain,
hypotension, and fetal distress.
3. A nurse is teaching a client about fetal movement counts (kick counts).
The client reports feeling 6 movements in 2 hours. What is the nurse’s best
response?
A. “This is normal; continue monitoring.”
B. “You should call your provider; fetal movement may be decreased.”
C. “Try lying down for another 2 hours to see if movement improves.”
D. “Decrease fluid intake and monitor again.”
Explanation:
,2025 LATEST ATI RN/PN MATERNAL
NEWBORN STUDY GUIDE FINAL TEST
BANK EXAM WITH NGN QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT ANSWERS
Correct: B – Fewer than 10 movements in 2 hours can indicate fetal
compromise and warrants evaluation.
A: Ignoring decreased movements can delay identification of fetal distress.
C: Repositioning may help but a count this low is concerning.
D: Decreasing fluids does not help; hydration usually improves fetal
movement.
4. A client at 39 weeks gestation is in labor. Her cervix is 6 cm dilated,
contractions every 3 minutes, lasting 60 seconds. She states she feels the
urge to push. What should the nurse do first?
A. Assist with pushing
B. Notify the provider
C. Assess for full cervical dilation
D. Prepare for immediate birth
Explanation:
Correct: C – Assessing cervical dilation ensures it is complete before
pushing.
A: Pushing before full dilation can cause cervical trauma.
B: Notification is important but assessment comes first.
D: Preparing for birth is correct eventually but immediate assessment is
priority.
, 2025 LATEST ATI RN/PN MATERNAL
NEWBORN STUDY GUIDE FINAL TEST
BANK EXAM WITH NGN QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT ANSWERS
5. A postpartum client reports heavy vaginal bleeding 2 hours after
delivery. Her uterus is firm and midline. What should the nurse do first?
A. Start IV fluids
B. Assess for lacerations of the genital tract
C. Massage the fundus
D. Administer oxytocin
Explanation:
Correct: B – If the uterus is firm, bleeding may be due to a laceration.
A: IV fluids support circulation but identifying source is first.
C: Fundal massage is indicated for uterine atony, not if the fundus is firm.
D: Oxytocin is unnecessary if uterus is firm.
6. A neonate is diagnosed with hyperbilirubinemia and requires
phototherapy. Which nursing intervention is appropriate?
A. Feed the baby every 6 hours
B. Ensure eyes are covered with protective eye shields
C. Apply lotion to prevent skin irritation
D. Place the baby on their stomach during therapy
Explanation:
Correct: B – Eye protection prevents retinal damage.
A: Frequent feeding is recommended, not every 6 hours.
NEWBORN STUDY GUIDE FINAL TEST
BANK EXAM WITH NGN QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT ANSWERS
Instructions: Choose the best answer for each question. Explanations are
provided for the correct answer and why the other options are incorrect.
1. A newborn is born at 32 weeks gestation. The nurse notes the infant has
weak muscle tone, minimal reflexes, and respiratory distress. Which is the
priority nursing intervention?
A. Swaddle the infant
B. Initiate Kangaroo care
C. Provide respiratory support (oxygen or CPAP)
D. Encourage maternal bonding
Explanation:
Correct: C – Preterm infants often have immature lungs, making
respiratory support a priority.
A: Swaddling is supportive but not priority over respiratory compromise.
B: Kangaroo care is beneficial but should be delayed until the infant is
stabilized.
D: Maternal bonding is important but secondary to airway and breathing.
2. A client at 28 weeks gestation presents with vaginal bleeding and
cramping. Which condition should the nurse suspect?
,2025 LATEST ATI RN/PN MATERNAL
NEWBORN STUDY GUIDE FINAL TEST
BANK EXAM WITH NGN QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT ANSWERS
A. Placenta previa
B. Preeclampsia
C. Ectopic pregnancy
D. Uterine rupture
Explanation:
Correct: A – Painless vaginal bleeding in the third trimester is classic for
placenta previa.
B: Preeclampsia presents with hypertension, edema, and proteinuria, not
painless bleeding.
C: Ectopic pregnancy usually occurs in the first trimester with unilateral
pain.
D: Uterine rupture is rare and presents with sudden severe pain,
hypotension, and fetal distress.
3. A nurse is teaching a client about fetal movement counts (kick counts).
The client reports feeling 6 movements in 2 hours. What is the nurse’s best
response?
A. “This is normal; continue monitoring.”
B. “You should call your provider; fetal movement may be decreased.”
C. “Try lying down for another 2 hours to see if movement improves.”
D. “Decrease fluid intake and monitor again.”
Explanation:
,2025 LATEST ATI RN/PN MATERNAL
NEWBORN STUDY GUIDE FINAL TEST
BANK EXAM WITH NGN QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT ANSWERS
Correct: B – Fewer than 10 movements in 2 hours can indicate fetal
compromise and warrants evaluation.
A: Ignoring decreased movements can delay identification of fetal distress.
C: Repositioning may help but a count this low is concerning.
D: Decreasing fluids does not help; hydration usually improves fetal
movement.
4. A client at 39 weeks gestation is in labor. Her cervix is 6 cm dilated,
contractions every 3 minutes, lasting 60 seconds. She states she feels the
urge to push. What should the nurse do first?
A. Assist with pushing
B. Notify the provider
C. Assess for full cervical dilation
D. Prepare for immediate birth
Explanation:
Correct: C – Assessing cervical dilation ensures it is complete before
pushing.
A: Pushing before full dilation can cause cervical trauma.
B: Notification is important but assessment comes first.
D: Preparing for birth is correct eventually but immediate assessment is
priority.
, 2025 LATEST ATI RN/PN MATERNAL
NEWBORN STUDY GUIDE FINAL TEST
BANK EXAM WITH NGN QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT ANSWERS
5. A postpartum client reports heavy vaginal bleeding 2 hours after
delivery. Her uterus is firm and midline. What should the nurse do first?
A. Start IV fluids
B. Assess for lacerations of the genital tract
C. Massage the fundus
D. Administer oxytocin
Explanation:
Correct: B – If the uterus is firm, bleeding may be due to a laceration.
A: IV fluids support circulation but identifying source is first.
C: Fundal massage is indicated for uterine atony, not if the fundus is firm.
D: Oxytocin is unnecessary if uterus is firm.
6. A neonate is diagnosed with hyperbilirubinemia and requires
phototherapy. Which nursing intervention is appropriate?
A. Feed the baby every 6 hours
B. Ensure eyes are covered with protective eye shields
C. Apply lotion to prevent skin irritation
D. Place the baby on their stomach during therapy
Explanation:
Correct: B – Eye protection prevents retinal damage.
A: Frequent feeding is recommended, not every 6 hours.
