NURS 6521 PHARMACOLOGY MIDTERM EXAM | QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS | VERIFIED ANSWERS PLUS RATIONALES | ALREADY
HIGHLY RATED | LATEST EXAM UPDATE
1. Which of the following is the primary mechanism of action of beta-
blockers?
A) Increase cardiac contractility
B) Block beta-adrenergic receptors to decrease heart rate and blood pressure
C) Stimulate alpha-adrenergic receptors
D) Inhibit renin release directly
Answer: B – Beta-blockers block beta-adrenergic receptors, reducing heart rate
and blood pressure, which decreases myocardial oxygen demand.
2. A nurse administers furosemide to a patient with heart failure. Which
electrolyte imbalance is most important to monitor?
A) Hypercalcemia
B) Hypokalemia
C) Hypermagnesemia
D) Hyponatremia
Answer: B – Furosemide is a loop diuretic that increases renal excretion of
potassium, making hypokalemia a common and dangerous side effect.
3. Which medication class is first-line therapy for lowering LDL
cholesterol?
A) Statins
B) Fibrates
C) Bile acid sequestrants
D) Niacin
Answer: A – Statins inhibit HMG-CoA reductase, effectively lowering LDL
cholesterol and reducing cardiovascular risk.
,4. A patient receiving digoxin reports nausea and visual disturbances. What
should the nurse suspect?
A) Hypokalemia
B) Digoxin toxicity
C) Hypernatremia
D) Renal failure
Answer: B – Nausea, vomiting, and visual changes (e.g., yellow halos) are
classic signs of digoxin toxicity.
5. Which of the following medications is used as a rapid-acting insulin?
A) Glargine
B) Regular insulin
C) Lispro
D) NPH
Answer: C – Insulin lispro is rapid-acting, with onset in 15–30 minutes, making
it ideal for postprandial glucose control.
6. A patient is prescribed a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) for GERD. Which
adverse effect should the nurse monitor?
A) Hyperkalemia
B) Osteoporosis with long-term use
C) Bradycardia
D) Hypoglycemia
Answer: B – Long-term PPI use can decrease calcium absorption, increasing
the risk for osteoporosis and fractures.
7. Which antibiotic is considered a first-line treatment for community-
acquired pneumonia in adults?
A) Vancomycin
B) Azithromycin
C) Ciprofloxacin
D) Amoxicillin-clavulanate
Answer: B – Azithromycin, a macrolide, is often first-line for outpatient
treatment of community-acquired pneumonia.
,8. The nurse is teaching a patient about warfarin. Which instruction is
most important?
A) Avoid foods high in vitamin C
B) Take medication only when feeling symptoms
C) Monitor for signs of bleeding and maintain consistent vitamin K intake
D) Stop medication when INR is therapeutic
Answer: C – Warfarin requires monitoring for bleeding and consistent vitamin
K intake to maintain stable anticoagulation.
9. Which class of drugs is used to treat angina by dilating coronary
arteries?
A) ACE inhibitors
B) Nitrates
C) Beta-blockers
D) Calcium channel blockers
Answer: B – Nitrates relax vascular smooth muscle, dilating coronary arteries
and improving oxygen delivery to the myocardium.
10. A patient develops a rash after starting amoxicillin. What is the most
appropriate nursing action?
A) Continue the medication and monitor
B) Stop the medication and notify the provider
C) Administer antihistamine and continue antibiotic
D) Ignore the rash as a mild side effect
Answer: B – A rash may indicate an allergic reaction; the antibiotic should be
discontinued and the provider notified immediately.
11. Which electrolyte disturbance is commonly associated with ACE
inhibitor therapy?
A) Hypokalemia
B) Hyperkalemia
C) Hypocalcemia
D) Hyponatremia
Answer: B – ACE inhibitors reduce aldosterone secretion, which can increase
serum potassium, leading to hyperkalemia.
, 12. A patient taking a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) reports
insomnia and restlessness. Which is the most appropriate nursing action?
A) Discontinue the SSRI immediately
B) Assess for other adverse effects and consider dosing time adjustment
C) Add a benzodiazepine
D) Advise the patient that these symptoms are unrelated
Answer: B – SSRIs can cause insomnia and agitation; adjusting dosing time or
monitoring symptoms is appropriate rather than immediate discontinuation.
13. Which medication is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose?
A) Naloxone
B) N-acetylcysteine
C) Atropine
D) Flumazenil
Answer: B – N-acetylcysteine replenishes glutathione and prevents hepatic
damage from acetaminophen toxicity.
14. A patient with type 2 diabetes is prescribed metformin. Which
instruction is essential?
A) Take the medication with food to reduce gastrointestinal upset
B) Avoid alcohol entirely
C) Expect rapid hypoglycemia
D) Discontinue before exercise
Answer: A – Taking metformin with meals reduces GI side effects; hypoglycemia
is rare unless combined with other agents.
15. Which drug class is contraindicated in patients with asthma due to
bronchospasm risk?
A) Beta-1 selective blockers
B) Nonselective beta-blockers
C) ACE inhibitors
D) Calcium channel blockers
Answer: B – Nonselective beta-blockers block both beta-1 and beta-2 receptors,
which can induce bronchospasm in asthmatic patients.
ANSWERS | VERIFIED ANSWERS PLUS RATIONALES | ALREADY
HIGHLY RATED | LATEST EXAM UPDATE
1. Which of the following is the primary mechanism of action of beta-
blockers?
A) Increase cardiac contractility
B) Block beta-adrenergic receptors to decrease heart rate and blood pressure
C) Stimulate alpha-adrenergic receptors
D) Inhibit renin release directly
Answer: B – Beta-blockers block beta-adrenergic receptors, reducing heart rate
and blood pressure, which decreases myocardial oxygen demand.
2. A nurse administers furosemide to a patient with heart failure. Which
electrolyte imbalance is most important to monitor?
A) Hypercalcemia
B) Hypokalemia
C) Hypermagnesemia
D) Hyponatremia
Answer: B – Furosemide is a loop diuretic that increases renal excretion of
potassium, making hypokalemia a common and dangerous side effect.
3. Which medication class is first-line therapy for lowering LDL
cholesterol?
A) Statins
B) Fibrates
C) Bile acid sequestrants
D) Niacin
Answer: A – Statins inhibit HMG-CoA reductase, effectively lowering LDL
cholesterol and reducing cardiovascular risk.
,4. A patient receiving digoxin reports nausea and visual disturbances. What
should the nurse suspect?
A) Hypokalemia
B) Digoxin toxicity
C) Hypernatremia
D) Renal failure
Answer: B – Nausea, vomiting, and visual changes (e.g., yellow halos) are
classic signs of digoxin toxicity.
5. Which of the following medications is used as a rapid-acting insulin?
A) Glargine
B) Regular insulin
C) Lispro
D) NPH
Answer: C – Insulin lispro is rapid-acting, with onset in 15–30 minutes, making
it ideal for postprandial glucose control.
6. A patient is prescribed a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) for GERD. Which
adverse effect should the nurse monitor?
A) Hyperkalemia
B) Osteoporosis with long-term use
C) Bradycardia
D) Hypoglycemia
Answer: B – Long-term PPI use can decrease calcium absorption, increasing
the risk for osteoporosis and fractures.
7. Which antibiotic is considered a first-line treatment for community-
acquired pneumonia in adults?
A) Vancomycin
B) Azithromycin
C) Ciprofloxacin
D) Amoxicillin-clavulanate
Answer: B – Azithromycin, a macrolide, is often first-line for outpatient
treatment of community-acquired pneumonia.
,8. The nurse is teaching a patient about warfarin. Which instruction is
most important?
A) Avoid foods high in vitamin C
B) Take medication only when feeling symptoms
C) Monitor for signs of bleeding and maintain consistent vitamin K intake
D) Stop medication when INR is therapeutic
Answer: C – Warfarin requires monitoring for bleeding and consistent vitamin
K intake to maintain stable anticoagulation.
9. Which class of drugs is used to treat angina by dilating coronary
arteries?
A) ACE inhibitors
B) Nitrates
C) Beta-blockers
D) Calcium channel blockers
Answer: B – Nitrates relax vascular smooth muscle, dilating coronary arteries
and improving oxygen delivery to the myocardium.
10. A patient develops a rash after starting amoxicillin. What is the most
appropriate nursing action?
A) Continue the medication and monitor
B) Stop the medication and notify the provider
C) Administer antihistamine and continue antibiotic
D) Ignore the rash as a mild side effect
Answer: B – A rash may indicate an allergic reaction; the antibiotic should be
discontinued and the provider notified immediately.
11. Which electrolyte disturbance is commonly associated with ACE
inhibitor therapy?
A) Hypokalemia
B) Hyperkalemia
C) Hypocalcemia
D) Hyponatremia
Answer: B – ACE inhibitors reduce aldosterone secretion, which can increase
serum potassium, leading to hyperkalemia.
, 12. A patient taking a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) reports
insomnia and restlessness. Which is the most appropriate nursing action?
A) Discontinue the SSRI immediately
B) Assess for other adverse effects and consider dosing time adjustment
C) Add a benzodiazepine
D) Advise the patient that these symptoms are unrelated
Answer: B – SSRIs can cause insomnia and agitation; adjusting dosing time or
monitoring symptoms is appropriate rather than immediate discontinuation.
13. Which medication is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose?
A) Naloxone
B) N-acetylcysteine
C) Atropine
D) Flumazenil
Answer: B – N-acetylcysteine replenishes glutathione and prevents hepatic
damage from acetaminophen toxicity.
14. A patient with type 2 diabetes is prescribed metformin. Which
instruction is essential?
A) Take the medication with food to reduce gastrointestinal upset
B) Avoid alcohol entirely
C) Expect rapid hypoglycemia
D) Discontinue before exercise
Answer: A – Taking metformin with meals reduces GI side effects; hypoglycemia
is rare unless combined with other agents.
15. Which drug class is contraindicated in patients with asthma due to
bronchospasm risk?
A) Beta-1 selective blockers
B) Nonselective beta-blockers
C) ACE inhibitors
D) Calcium channel blockers
Answer: B – Nonselective beta-blockers block both beta-1 and beta-2 receptors,
which can induce bronchospasm in asthmatic patients.
