WGU D115 – ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY | OA
READINESS PRACTICE EXAM & TEST BANK | 96
QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED ANSWERS & RATIONALES
(LATEST )
IMMUNOLOGY, NEURO, PSYCH, GENETICS (Questions 1–20)
1. When explaining the types of adaptive immunity, the FNP student is aware that:
A. Adaptive immunity is a cell-mediated immune response only
B. Adaptive immunity is the level of immunity all persons are born with
C. Adaptive immunity occurs when antibodies are passed from mother to fetus
D. Adaptive immunity occurs through immunization
✅ Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Adaptive immunity involves antigen-specific responses mediated by T lymphocytes (cell-
mediated) and B lymphocytes (humoral immunity). This system develops after exposure to antigens
and provides immunologic memory. Passive immunity (maternal antibodies) and innate immunity
are separate mechanisms. Immunization is a method of inducing adaptive immunity but does not
define it exclusively.
2. A woman with TBI can follow simple commands and manipulate objects. Which term describes
this state?
A. Coma
B. Persistent vegetative state
C. Minimally conscious state
D. Locked-in syndrome
✅ Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
A minimally conscious state is characterized by inconsistent but reproducible behavioral evidence of
awareness. Patients can follow commands or interact with objects intermittently. This differentiates
it from vegetative states, where purposeful responses are absent. Recognition is critical for prognosis
and rehabilitation planning.
,3. Which Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score indicates severe traumatic brain injury?
A. 13–15
B. 12–13
C. 9–12
D. 3–8
✅ Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
A GCS score of 3–8 indicates severe brain injury and correlates with increased mortality and long-
term disability. Moderate TBI is scored 9–12, while mild TBI is 13–15. Early GCS assessment helps
guide airway management and neuroimaging decisions.
4. Which term describes recurrent, intrusive thoughts or impulses?
A. Hallucinations
B. Compulsions
C. Obsessions
D. Delusions
✅ Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Obsessions are recurrent, intrusive, and unwanted thoughts, urges, or images that cause anxiety or
distress. They are hallmark features of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). Compulsions are
repetitive behaviors performed to relieve anxiety caused by obsessions.
5. During an intake interview with a patient with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), the FNP may
observe:
A. Inflated self-esteem
B. Constant fixation on future events
C. Inability to concentrate and irritability
D. Fear of the examiner
✅ Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
GAD is characterized by excessive worry, restlessness, irritability, muscle tension, and impaired
concentration. These symptoms are chronic and interfere with daily functioning. The inability to
concentrate often worsens anxiety symptoms.
6. Which symptoms would the FNP expect in schizophrenia?
A. High energy and nonstop speech
B. Extreme mood swings
C. Paranoia, delusions, hallucinations, poor self-care
D. Manipulative antisocial behavior
, ✅ Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Schizophrenia presents with positive symptoms (hallucinations, delusions) and negative
symptoms (flat affect, poor self-care). Cognitive impairment and disorganized behavior are also
common. Early recognition improves long-term outcomes.
7. A child with otalgia and muffled hearing after URI likely has:
A. Acute otitis media
B. Otitis externa
C. Cholesteatoma
D. Chronic otitis media
✅ Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Acute otitis media commonly follows upper respiratory infections due to eustachian tube
dysfunction. Symptoms include ear pain, hearing loss, fever, and a bulging tympanic membrane.
Prompt treatment prevents complications.
8. Most common indication for genetic counseling is:
A. Advanced maternal age
B. First-trimester drug exposure
C. Elevated AFP
D. Prior stillbirth
✅ Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Advanced maternal age (>35 years) increases the risk of chromosomal abnormalities such as Down
syndrome. This population represents the largest group benefiting from genetic counseling.
Counseling guides prenatal testing decisions.
9. Purpose of amniocentesis at 16 weeks is to:
A. Assess twins
B. Measure bilirubin
C. Perform genetic studies
D. Assess L/S ratio
✅ Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Amniocentesis allows analysis of fetal chromosomes, enzymes, and DNA. It is commonly used to
detect trisomies and neural tube defects. The L/S ratio is assessed later in pregnancy.
READINESS PRACTICE EXAM & TEST BANK | 96
QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED ANSWERS & RATIONALES
(LATEST )
IMMUNOLOGY, NEURO, PSYCH, GENETICS (Questions 1–20)
1. When explaining the types of adaptive immunity, the FNP student is aware that:
A. Adaptive immunity is a cell-mediated immune response only
B. Adaptive immunity is the level of immunity all persons are born with
C. Adaptive immunity occurs when antibodies are passed from mother to fetus
D. Adaptive immunity occurs through immunization
✅ Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Adaptive immunity involves antigen-specific responses mediated by T lymphocytes (cell-
mediated) and B lymphocytes (humoral immunity). This system develops after exposure to antigens
and provides immunologic memory. Passive immunity (maternal antibodies) and innate immunity
are separate mechanisms. Immunization is a method of inducing adaptive immunity but does not
define it exclusively.
2. A woman with TBI can follow simple commands and manipulate objects. Which term describes
this state?
A. Coma
B. Persistent vegetative state
C. Minimally conscious state
D. Locked-in syndrome
✅ Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
A minimally conscious state is characterized by inconsistent but reproducible behavioral evidence of
awareness. Patients can follow commands or interact with objects intermittently. This differentiates
it from vegetative states, where purposeful responses are absent. Recognition is critical for prognosis
and rehabilitation planning.
,3. Which Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score indicates severe traumatic brain injury?
A. 13–15
B. 12–13
C. 9–12
D. 3–8
✅ Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
A GCS score of 3–8 indicates severe brain injury and correlates with increased mortality and long-
term disability. Moderate TBI is scored 9–12, while mild TBI is 13–15. Early GCS assessment helps
guide airway management and neuroimaging decisions.
4. Which term describes recurrent, intrusive thoughts or impulses?
A. Hallucinations
B. Compulsions
C. Obsessions
D. Delusions
✅ Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Obsessions are recurrent, intrusive, and unwanted thoughts, urges, or images that cause anxiety or
distress. They are hallmark features of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). Compulsions are
repetitive behaviors performed to relieve anxiety caused by obsessions.
5. During an intake interview with a patient with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), the FNP may
observe:
A. Inflated self-esteem
B. Constant fixation on future events
C. Inability to concentrate and irritability
D. Fear of the examiner
✅ Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
GAD is characterized by excessive worry, restlessness, irritability, muscle tension, and impaired
concentration. These symptoms are chronic and interfere with daily functioning. The inability to
concentrate often worsens anxiety symptoms.
6. Which symptoms would the FNP expect in schizophrenia?
A. High energy and nonstop speech
B. Extreme mood swings
C. Paranoia, delusions, hallucinations, poor self-care
D. Manipulative antisocial behavior
, ✅ Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Schizophrenia presents with positive symptoms (hallucinations, delusions) and negative
symptoms (flat affect, poor self-care). Cognitive impairment and disorganized behavior are also
common. Early recognition improves long-term outcomes.
7. A child with otalgia and muffled hearing after URI likely has:
A. Acute otitis media
B. Otitis externa
C. Cholesteatoma
D. Chronic otitis media
✅ Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Acute otitis media commonly follows upper respiratory infections due to eustachian tube
dysfunction. Symptoms include ear pain, hearing loss, fever, and a bulging tympanic membrane.
Prompt treatment prevents complications.
8. Most common indication for genetic counseling is:
A. Advanced maternal age
B. First-trimester drug exposure
C. Elevated AFP
D. Prior stillbirth
✅ Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Advanced maternal age (>35 years) increases the risk of chromosomal abnormalities such as Down
syndrome. This population represents the largest group benefiting from genetic counseling.
Counseling guides prenatal testing decisions.
9. Purpose of amniocentesis at 16 weeks is to:
A. Assess twins
B. Measure bilirubin
C. Perform genetic studies
D. Assess L/S ratio
✅ Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Amniocentesis allows analysis of fetal chromosomes, enzymes, and DNA. It is commonly used to
detect trisomies and neural tube defects. The L/S ratio is assessed later in pregnancy.
