2026/2027 || NURSING PHARMACOLOGY REVIEW || DRUG THERAPY &
MEDICATION SAFETY || VERIFIED QUESTIONS WITH ACCURATE ANSWERS
|| HIGH-YIELD STUDY GUIDE || COMPLETE TEST BANK || GRADED A+
100 exam questions and answers
The nurse is caring for a client who has taken atenolol for 2 years. The
healthcare provider recently changed the medication to enalapril to manage the
client's blood pressure. Which instruction should the nurse provide the client
regarding the new medication? - CORRECT ANSWER -A. Take the
medication at bedtime.
B. Report presence of increased bruising.
C. Check pulse before taking medication.
D. Rise slowly when getting out of bed or chair. Correct
The client's new medication is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE)
inhibitor, which has the side effect oforthostatic hypotension. Instructing the
client to rise slowly from a sitting or lying down position is important to teach
the client to avoid dizziness and potentially falling.
A female client calls the clinic and talks with the nurse to inquire about a
possible reaction after taking amoxicillin for 5 days. She reports having vaginal
discomfort, itching, and a white discharge. The nurse should discuss which
action with the client? - CORRECT ANSWER -Discontinue the antibiotic
because original symptoms have subsided.
Continue taking medication until finished until the symptoms subside.
Consult with healthcare provider about another treatment for this effect. Correct
Use an over-the-counter (OTC) vaginal wash to flush out the secretions.
,A superinfection with normal flora yeast may occur during antibiotic therapy. If
suspected, the new onset of findings should be reported to the healthcare
provider for another prescribed treatment to treat the superinfection.
The nurse is making early morning rounds on a group of clients when a client
begins exhibiting symptoms of an acute asthma attack. The nurse administers a
PRN prescription for a Beta 2 receptor agonist agent. Which client response
should the nurse expect? - CORRECT ANSWER -Tachycardia.
Increased blood pressure.
Rapid resolution of wheezing. Correct
Improved pulse oximetry values. Correct
Reduce fever airway inflammation.
Beta 2 receptor agonist agents should provide immediate return of airflow and
resolve wheezing and improve oxygenation.
A client prescribed atenolol has a blood pressure of 120/68 mmHg, displaying a
sinus bradycardia with a rate of 58 beats/minute, and a P-R interval of 0.24.
Which action should the nurse take? - CORRECT ANSWER -Lower the head
of the bed and assess the client for orthostatic vital sign changes.
Give the medication as prescribed and continue to monitor the client. Correct
Prepare to administer atropine sulfate IV push.
Hold the prescribed dose and contact the healthcare provider.
,Since the client's blood pressure is within normal limits, and the pulse is above
50 beats/min with a first degree block, the medication can be administered.
Atenolol is a beta-blocker that slows the heart rate and lowers the blood
pressure; this drug is generally held if the heart rate is less than 50 beats/min or
the client exhibits dizziness related to hypotension.
The nurse is preparing the 0900 dose of losartan (Cozaar), an angiotensin II
receptor blocker (ARB), for a client with hypertension and heart failure. The
nurse reviews the client's laboratory results and notes that the client's serum
potassium level is 5.9 mEq/L. Which action should the nurse take first? -
CORRECT ANSWER -Withhold the scheduled dose. Correct
Check the client's apical pulse.
Notify the healthcare provider.
Repeat the serum potassium level.
The nurse should first withhold the scheduled dose of Cozaar because the client
is hyperkalemic (normal range 3.5 to 5 mEq/l). Although hypokalemia is
usually associated with diuretic therapy in heart failure, hyperkalemia is
associated with several heart failure medications, including ARBs. Because
hyperkalemia may lead to cardiac dysrhythmias, the nurse should check the
apical pulse for rate and rhythm, and blood pressure.
Awarded 1.0 points out of 1.0 possible
Upon admission to the emergency center, an adult client with acute status
asthmaticus is prescribed this series of medications. In which order should the
nurse administer the prescribed medications? (Arrange from first to last.) -
CORRECT ANSWER -Albuterol (Proventil) puffs.
, Salmeterol (Serevent Diskus).
Prednisone (Deltasone) orally.
Gentamicin (Garamycin) IM.
Status asthmaticus is potentially a life-threatening respiratory event, so
albuterol, a beta2 adrenergic agonist and short acting bronchodilator, should be
administered by inhalation first to provide rapid and deep topical penetration to
relieve bronchospasms, dilate the bronchioles, and increase oxygenation. In
stepwise management of persistent asthma, a long-action bronchodilator, such
as salmeterol (Serevent Diskus), with a 12-hour duration of action should be
given next. Prednisone, an oral corticosteroid, provides prolonged anti-
inflammatory effects and should be given after the client's respiratory distress
begins to resolves. Gentamicin, an antibiotic, is given deep IM, which can be
painful, and may require repositioning the client, so should be last in the
sequence.
An adult client is given a prescription for a scopolamine patch (Transderm
Scop) to prevent motion sickness while on a cruise. Which information should
the nurse provide to the client? - CORRECT ANSWER -Apply the patch at
least 4 hours prior to departure. Correct
Change the patch every other day while on the cruise.
Place the patch on a hairless area at the base of the skull.
Drink no more than 2 alcoholic drinks during the cruise.
Scopolamine, an anticholinergic agent, is used to prevent motion sickness and
has a peak onset in 6 hours, so the client should be instructed to apply the patch
at least 4 hours before departure on the cruise ship. The duration of the