CEA PREP FULL PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH
VERIFIED SOLUTIONS GRADED A+ LATEST
UPDATE
A 45 y/o man with history of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) presents with
worsening urinary symptoms, including nocturia and weak stream. What is the
most appropriates intital pharamcological treatment?
*Antibiotics
*Alph-blockers
*Anticholinergics
*5-aplha-reductase inhibitors --CORRECT ANSWER--Alpha blockers
Which of the following suggest a diagnosis of glomerulonephritis?
*Elevated WBCs on UA
*Absence of albuminuria
*WBC casts in urine
*CD4 count of 50 with hematuria --CORRECT ANSWER--CD4 count of 50
with hematuria
Which of the following microorganisms are most frequently associated with
acute bacterial rhino-sinusitis?
Page 1 of 224
,*Streptococcus pneumoniae and H. Influenzae
*Streptococcus Pneumoniae and Psuedomonas aeruginosa
*Streptococcus aureus and MRSA
*Streptococcus aureus and Mycoplasma pneumonia --CORRECT ANSWER--
Streptococcus pneumoniae and H. Influenzae
An adult presents with acute onset of right eye pain, redness and decreased
vision. Suspecting open-angle glaucoma the nurse practitioner should:
*Refer to ophthalmology and prescribe topical steroid
*Refer to ophthalmology and prescribe pilocarpine
*Prescribe antibiotic onitoment and pilocarpine
*Advise apply warm compress and returning in the morning --CORRECT
ANSWER--*Refer to ophthalmology and prescribe pilocarpine
A young adult female presents with painful swelling of the right cheek anterior
to the TMJ. The diagnosis is sialadenitis. To determine the appropriate
treatment for this patient, the most common infecting organism in bacterial
sialadenitis is:
*Staphylococcus aureus
*Group A beta hemolytic Streptococcus
*Moraxella catarrhalis --CORRECT ANSWER--*Staphylococcus aureus
Page 2 of 224
,A 30-year-old woman presents with a 6-month history of persistent sadness,
loss of interest in activities she once enjoyed, fatigue, and difficulty
concentrating. She also reports changes in appetite and sleep patterns. What is
the most likely diagnosis?
*Generalized anxiety disorder
*Bipolar disorder
*incorrectDysthymia
*Major depressive disorder --CORRECT ANSWER--Major depressive disorder
Which of the following medications does not cause beta 1 stimulation? --
CORRECT ANSWER--phenylephrine
Rationale: Phenylephrine only stimulates alpha 1 receptors. The remaining three
all have beta receptor activity.
A 50-year-old woman with a history of hypertension presents with dyspnea on
exertion and orthopnea. On examination, she has jugular venous distention and
bilateral crackles on lung auscultation. What is the most likely diagnosis? --
CORRECT ANSWER--Congestive heart failure
Rationale: Of the available options, the most accurate response is congestive
heart failure as it is signifying both a right ventricular back up with jugular
venous extension and crackles on lung assault, which are suggestive of left
ventricular back up. it is possible the patient may have an acute myocardial
infarction that precipitated this, however, a patient has not described that, rather
is only describing dyspnea on exertion and orthopnea, which both speak to a
Page 3 of 224
, state of fluid overload. The only appropriate response of these available is
congestive heart failure.
Your patient with a history of HFrEF (heart failure with reduced ejection
fraction) with an ejection fraction of 40% who is also not on optimal medical
therapy has been diagnosed with a myocardial infarction this admission and
received emergent placement of a drug-eluting stent to the left anterior
descending artery. As the medical home who will manage this patient after
discharge, which medication strategy would you expect to be a priority in the
patient's care? --CORRECT ANSWER--Ordering a transthoracic
echocardiogram and order a Lifevest if EF is less than 35%
Rationale: The patient should have a protective mechanism such as an
implantable automated cardioverter defibrillator (AICD) or a Lifevest if the EF
is less than 35% due to the increased risk of sudden cardiac death with low EF
states. Since most patients are not eligible for 90 days for an AICD in this state,
optimizing their medication regimen and repeating an echo in 2-3 months to re-
evaluate for improvement in their EF is required by most insurance companies.
A baseline echo is needed at discharge to provide a baseline for improvement vs
their repeat echo in 2-3 months.
Dual anti-platelet therapy is required for 12 months minimum post-MI.
A Holter monitor does not provide any conceivable benefit for this patient as
presented.
A 65-year-old woman presents for a follow-up examination. She is a smoker,
and her hypertension is now adequately controlled with medication. Her mother
died at age 40 from a heart attack. The fasting lipid profile shows cholesterol =
Page 4 of 224
VERIFIED SOLUTIONS GRADED A+ LATEST
UPDATE
A 45 y/o man with history of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) presents with
worsening urinary symptoms, including nocturia and weak stream. What is the
most appropriates intital pharamcological treatment?
*Antibiotics
*Alph-blockers
*Anticholinergics
*5-aplha-reductase inhibitors --CORRECT ANSWER--Alpha blockers
Which of the following suggest a diagnosis of glomerulonephritis?
*Elevated WBCs on UA
*Absence of albuminuria
*WBC casts in urine
*CD4 count of 50 with hematuria --CORRECT ANSWER--CD4 count of 50
with hematuria
Which of the following microorganisms are most frequently associated with
acute bacterial rhino-sinusitis?
Page 1 of 224
,*Streptococcus pneumoniae and H. Influenzae
*Streptococcus Pneumoniae and Psuedomonas aeruginosa
*Streptococcus aureus and MRSA
*Streptococcus aureus and Mycoplasma pneumonia --CORRECT ANSWER--
Streptococcus pneumoniae and H. Influenzae
An adult presents with acute onset of right eye pain, redness and decreased
vision. Suspecting open-angle glaucoma the nurse practitioner should:
*Refer to ophthalmology and prescribe topical steroid
*Refer to ophthalmology and prescribe pilocarpine
*Prescribe antibiotic onitoment and pilocarpine
*Advise apply warm compress and returning in the morning --CORRECT
ANSWER--*Refer to ophthalmology and prescribe pilocarpine
A young adult female presents with painful swelling of the right cheek anterior
to the TMJ. The diagnosis is sialadenitis. To determine the appropriate
treatment for this patient, the most common infecting organism in bacterial
sialadenitis is:
*Staphylococcus aureus
*Group A beta hemolytic Streptococcus
*Moraxella catarrhalis --CORRECT ANSWER--*Staphylococcus aureus
Page 2 of 224
,A 30-year-old woman presents with a 6-month history of persistent sadness,
loss of interest in activities she once enjoyed, fatigue, and difficulty
concentrating. She also reports changes in appetite and sleep patterns. What is
the most likely diagnosis?
*Generalized anxiety disorder
*Bipolar disorder
*incorrectDysthymia
*Major depressive disorder --CORRECT ANSWER--Major depressive disorder
Which of the following medications does not cause beta 1 stimulation? --
CORRECT ANSWER--phenylephrine
Rationale: Phenylephrine only stimulates alpha 1 receptors. The remaining three
all have beta receptor activity.
A 50-year-old woman with a history of hypertension presents with dyspnea on
exertion and orthopnea. On examination, she has jugular venous distention and
bilateral crackles on lung auscultation. What is the most likely diagnosis? --
CORRECT ANSWER--Congestive heart failure
Rationale: Of the available options, the most accurate response is congestive
heart failure as it is signifying both a right ventricular back up with jugular
venous extension and crackles on lung assault, which are suggestive of left
ventricular back up. it is possible the patient may have an acute myocardial
infarction that precipitated this, however, a patient has not described that, rather
is only describing dyspnea on exertion and orthopnea, which both speak to a
Page 3 of 224
, state of fluid overload. The only appropriate response of these available is
congestive heart failure.
Your patient with a history of HFrEF (heart failure with reduced ejection
fraction) with an ejection fraction of 40% who is also not on optimal medical
therapy has been diagnosed with a myocardial infarction this admission and
received emergent placement of a drug-eluting stent to the left anterior
descending artery. As the medical home who will manage this patient after
discharge, which medication strategy would you expect to be a priority in the
patient's care? --CORRECT ANSWER--Ordering a transthoracic
echocardiogram and order a Lifevest if EF is less than 35%
Rationale: The patient should have a protective mechanism such as an
implantable automated cardioverter defibrillator (AICD) or a Lifevest if the EF
is less than 35% due to the increased risk of sudden cardiac death with low EF
states. Since most patients are not eligible for 90 days for an AICD in this state,
optimizing their medication regimen and repeating an echo in 2-3 months to re-
evaluate for improvement in their EF is required by most insurance companies.
A baseline echo is needed at discharge to provide a baseline for improvement vs
their repeat echo in 2-3 months.
Dual anti-platelet therapy is required for 12 months minimum post-MI.
A Holter monitor does not provide any conceivable benefit for this patient as
presented.
A 65-year-old woman presents for a follow-up examination. She is a smoker,
and her hypertension is now adequately controlled with medication. Her mother
died at age 40 from a heart attack. The fasting lipid profile shows cholesterol =
Page 4 of 224
