RELIAS RN PHARMACOLOGY A EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
|FALL 2025/2026 UPDATE | 100% CORRECT LATEST
QUESTION 1:
Which of the following best describes the pharmacokinetic phase involving the movement of a
drug from systemic circulation to the target tissues?
A. Absorption
B. Distribution
C. Metabolism
D. Excretion
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Distribution
RATIONALE: Distribution refers to the transport of a drug by the bloodstream to its site of action,
storage sites, and organs of elimination. Absorption concerns drug entry into circulation,
metabolism involves biotransformation, and excretion removes substances from the body.
QUESTION 2:
A nurse is administering an opioid analgesic. What is the most critical assessment before giving
the dose?
A. Pain intensity
B. Blood pressure
C. Respiratory rate
D. Heart rate
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Respiratory rate
RATIONALE: Opioids can depress the respiratory center in the medulla. A respiratory rate below
12 breaths per minute requires holding the dose. While pain assessment is essential, safety
overrides therapeutic effectiveness.
QUESTION 3:
A patient receiving digoxin reports nausea and visual disturbances. What should the nurse
suspect?
A. Electrolyte imbalance
B. Digoxin toxicity
,C. Allergic reaction
D. Gastrointestinal infection
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Digoxin toxicity
RATIONALE: Classic early signs of digoxin toxicity include nausea, vomiting, bradycardia, and
visual changes such as yellow halos. Monitoring serum digoxin and potassium levels is essential.
QUESTION 4:
Beta blockers should be used with caution in patients with which condition?
A. Hypertension
B. Tachycardia
C. Asthma
D. Hyperlipidemia
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Asthma
RATIONALE: Non-selective beta blockers can block β₂ receptors in the lungs, causing
bronchoconstriction in asthmatic patients. Cardioselective beta blockers are preferable if
indicated.
QUESTION 5:
Warfarin’s therapeutic effect is best monitored by which laboratory test?
A. aPTT
B. INR
C. Platelet count
D. Hemoglobin
CORRECT ANSWER: B. INR
RATIONALE: The International Normalized Ratio (INR) standardizes prothrombin time results.
The therapeutic range for most warfarin indications is typically between 2.0 and 3.0.
QUESTION 6:
Which of the following routes has the fastest onset of action?
A. Oral
B. Subcutaneous
C. Intramuscular
D. Intravenous
, CORRECT ANSWER: D. Intravenous
RATIONALE: Intravenous administration delivers the drug directly to systemic circulation,
bypassing absorption barriers, and ensuring the most rapid onset.
QUESTION 7:
A nurse educates a patient taking tetracycline. Which statement indicates understanding?
A. “I should take this medication with milk.”
B. “I will avoid sunlight exposure.”
C. “I can take it with antacids to reduce stomach upset.”
D. “It is safe during pregnancy.”
CORRECT ANSWER: B. I will avoid sunlight exposure.
RATIONALE: Tetracyclines cause photosensitivity. They should not be taken with calcium-rich
foods or antacids, as these reduce absorption, and are contraindicated in pregnancy.
QUESTION 8:
Which adverse effect is most concerning for a patient on ACE inhibitors?
A. Dry cough
B. Rash
C. Angioedema
D. Fatigue
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Angioedema
RATIONALE: Angioedema can be life-threatening due to airway obstruction. Although dry cough
is common, angioedema requires immediate cessation of the drug.
QUESTION 9:
A nurse prepares to administer insulin lispro. What is the appropriate nursing action?
A. Give 30 minutes before meals
B. Give immediately before meals
C. Give at bedtime
D. Give two hours after meals
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Give immediately before meals
RATIONALE: Insulin lispro is a rapid-acting insulin with an onset of 15 minutes. Administering
just before eating prevents postprandial hyperglycemia.
|FALL 2025/2026 UPDATE | 100% CORRECT LATEST
QUESTION 1:
Which of the following best describes the pharmacokinetic phase involving the movement of a
drug from systemic circulation to the target tissues?
A. Absorption
B. Distribution
C. Metabolism
D. Excretion
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Distribution
RATIONALE: Distribution refers to the transport of a drug by the bloodstream to its site of action,
storage sites, and organs of elimination. Absorption concerns drug entry into circulation,
metabolism involves biotransformation, and excretion removes substances from the body.
QUESTION 2:
A nurse is administering an opioid analgesic. What is the most critical assessment before giving
the dose?
A. Pain intensity
B. Blood pressure
C. Respiratory rate
D. Heart rate
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Respiratory rate
RATIONALE: Opioids can depress the respiratory center in the medulla. A respiratory rate below
12 breaths per minute requires holding the dose. While pain assessment is essential, safety
overrides therapeutic effectiveness.
QUESTION 3:
A patient receiving digoxin reports nausea and visual disturbances. What should the nurse
suspect?
A. Electrolyte imbalance
B. Digoxin toxicity
,C. Allergic reaction
D. Gastrointestinal infection
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Digoxin toxicity
RATIONALE: Classic early signs of digoxin toxicity include nausea, vomiting, bradycardia, and
visual changes such as yellow halos. Monitoring serum digoxin and potassium levels is essential.
QUESTION 4:
Beta blockers should be used with caution in patients with which condition?
A. Hypertension
B. Tachycardia
C. Asthma
D. Hyperlipidemia
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Asthma
RATIONALE: Non-selective beta blockers can block β₂ receptors in the lungs, causing
bronchoconstriction in asthmatic patients. Cardioselective beta blockers are preferable if
indicated.
QUESTION 5:
Warfarin’s therapeutic effect is best monitored by which laboratory test?
A. aPTT
B. INR
C. Platelet count
D. Hemoglobin
CORRECT ANSWER: B. INR
RATIONALE: The International Normalized Ratio (INR) standardizes prothrombin time results.
The therapeutic range for most warfarin indications is typically between 2.0 and 3.0.
QUESTION 6:
Which of the following routes has the fastest onset of action?
A. Oral
B. Subcutaneous
C. Intramuscular
D. Intravenous
, CORRECT ANSWER: D. Intravenous
RATIONALE: Intravenous administration delivers the drug directly to systemic circulation,
bypassing absorption barriers, and ensuring the most rapid onset.
QUESTION 7:
A nurse educates a patient taking tetracycline. Which statement indicates understanding?
A. “I should take this medication with milk.”
B. “I will avoid sunlight exposure.”
C. “I can take it with antacids to reduce stomach upset.”
D. “It is safe during pregnancy.”
CORRECT ANSWER: B. I will avoid sunlight exposure.
RATIONALE: Tetracyclines cause photosensitivity. They should not be taken with calcium-rich
foods or antacids, as these reduce absorption, and are contraindicated in pregnancy.
QUESTION 8:
Which adverse effect is most concerning for a patient on ACE inhibitors?
A. Dry cough
B. Rash
C. Angioedema
D. Fatigue
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Angioedema
RATIONALE: Angioedema can be life-threatening due to airway obstruction. Although dry cough
is common, angioedema requires immediate cessation of the drug.
QUESTION 9:
A nurse prepares to administer insulin lispro. What is the appropriate nursing action?
A. Give 30 minutes before meals
B. Give immediately before meals
C. Give at bedtime
D. Give two hours after meals
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Give immediately before meals
RATIONALE: Insulin lispro is a rapid-acting insulin with an onset of 15 minutes. Administering
just before eating prevents postprandial hyperglycemia.
