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NREMT EMR Exam Prep Test Bank 1 Newest Actual Exam With Complete 600 Questions And Correct Detailed Answers (Verified Answers) |Already Graded A+

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NREMT EMR Exam Prep Test Bank 1 Newest Actual Exam With Complete 600 Questions And Correct Detailed Answers (Verified Answers) |Already Graded A+

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NREMT EMR Exam Prep Test Bank 1 Newest Actual
Exam With Complete 600 Questions And Correct
Detailed Answers (Verified Answers) |Already
Graded A+




Hypoglycemia and acute ischemic stroke can present similarly because:


• A:both oxygen and glucose are needed for brain function.
• B:the majority of stroke patients have a history of diabetes.
• C:the most common cause of a stroke is hypoglycemia.
• D:they are both caused by low levels of glucose in the blood. - answer -;• A:both oxygen and
glucose are needed for brain function.


Reason: Although stroke and hypoglycemia are two distinctly different conditions, their signs
and symptoms are often similar. This is because the brain requires both oxygen and glucose to
function normally. An acute ischemic stroke is caused by a lack of oxygen to a part of the brain
due to a blocked cerebral artery, whereas hypoglycemia (low blood glucose level) deprives the
entire brain of glucose. In either case, the patient presents with signs of impaired brain function
(ie, slurred speech, weakness, altered mental status). Both conditions may lead to permanent
brain damage or death if not treated promptly.


What is the function of pulmonary surfactant?
• A:It facilitates the production of mucous, which is expelled during coughing.
• B:It carries fresh oxygen from the lungs to the left side of the heart.
• C:It lubricates the alveolar walls and allows them to expand and recoil.

,• D:It dilates the bronchioles in the lungs and enhances the flow of air. - answer -;You selected
C; This is correct!


Reason:
Surfactant is a lubricant that lines the alveolar walls. It allows them to expand and recoil freely,
thereby allowing for an easy exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide. Diseases such as
emphysema cause destruction of the alveolar walls and a decrease in pulmonary surfactant.
This makes the normal process of breathing very difficult for these patients. Mucous-producing
cells, called Goblet cells, line the trachea and larger bronchi. Provided the patient has an
effective cough reflex, bacteria and other pathogens can be expelled from the body via the
mucous produced by the Goblet cells.


A young male has an open abdominal wound through which a small loop of bowel is protruding.
There is minimal bleeding. The BEST way to treat his injury is to:
• A:cover the wound with a dry sterile trauma dressing and tightly secure it in place by
circumferentially wrapping roller gauze around the abdomen.
• B:apply a sterile trauma dressing moistened with sterile saline directly to the wound and
secure the moist dressing in place with a dry sterile dressing.
• C:gently clean the exposed loop of bowel with warm sterile saline, carefully replace it back
into the wound, and cover it with a dry sterile dressing.
• D:apply dry sterile gauze pads to the wound and then keep them continuously moist by
pouring sterile saline or water on them throughout transport. - answer -;You selected B; This is
correct!


Reason:
An abdominal evisceration occurs when a loop of bowel, an organ, or fat protrudes through an
open abdominal injury. Never try to replace an organ that is protruding from an open
abdominal wound, whether it is a small fold of peritoneum or nearly all of the intestines; this
significantly increases the risk of infection. Instead, cover it with sterile gauze pads or a sterile
trauma dressing moistened with sterile saline and secure the moist dressing in place with a dry
sterile dressing. Some EMS protocols call for an occlusive dressing over the organs, secured by
trauma dressings. Do not apply excessive pressure when dressing and bandaging the wound;
this may force the protruding organ or loop of bowel back into the abdominal cavity.

,A patient who is breathing with reduced tidal volume would MOST likely have:
• A:a prolonged inhalation phase.
• B:warm, moist skin.
• C:a respiratory rate of 14 breaths/min.
• D:shallow respirations. - answer -;You selected D; This is correct!


Reason:
Tidal volume, a measure of the depth of breathing, is the amount of air (in milliliters [mL]) that
is moved into or out of the lungs during a single breath; in the average adult male, this is about
500 mL. Tidal volume cannot be quantified (that is, it cannot be assigned a numeric value) by
the EMT; however, it can be estimated by observing the adequacy of chest rise during
inhalation. A patient who is breathing with reduced tidal volume will have a shallow depth of
breathing; his or her chest rises minimally during inhalation. If a patient is not breathing with
adequate tidal volume, he or she will eventually become hypoxemic, which will cause the skin
to become cool and clammy and pale or cyanotic. Conversely, a patient with a prolonged
inhalation phase (eg, taking a deep breath) would experience an increase in tidal volume.
Minute volume is the amount of air moved through the lungs each minute; it is calculated by
multiplying tidal volume and respiratory rate. A respiratory rate of 14 breaths/min with
adequate tidal volume would result in adequate minute volume. Minute volume is affected by
tidal volume, respiratory rate, or both.


Which of the following would clearly be detrimental to a patient in cardiac arrest?
• A:Ventilating just until the chest rises
• B:Using a pocket face mask without high-flow oxygen
• C:Interrupting CPR for more than 10 seconds
• D:Performing CPR before defibrillation - answer -;You selected C; This is correct!


Reason:
Major emphasis is placed on minimizing interruptions in CPR. Even brief interruptions cause a
significant decrease in blood flow to the heart and brain. If you must interrupt CPR, do not
exceed 10 seconds. It is preferable to ventilate a patient with a pocket face mask attached to
high-flow oxygen, but failing to do so will not be nearly as detrimental as interrupting CPR for

, extended periods of time. You should ventilate the patient just until the chest visibly rises;
ventilations that are too forceful or too fast can cause hyperinflation of the lungs, which may
reduce blood return to the heart. When caring for any patient in cardiac arrest, you should
immediately begin CPR, and then apply the AED as soon as possible.


Which of the following actions is MOST important when immobilizing a patient with a
suspected spinal injury?
• A:Select and apply the appropriate size of extrication collar.
• B:A vest-style immobilization device should routinely be used.
• C:Check range of motion by asking the patient to move the head.
• D:Secure the patient's head prior to immobilizing the torso. - answer -;The correct answer is
A;


Reason:
Although an extrication (cervical) collar is not the sole means of immobilizing the patient's
spine, it must be of the appropriate size in order to minimize flexion/extension of the patient's
neck. When immobilizing any patient, whether with a vest-style device or long spine board, the
head is immobilized after the torso. Immobilizing the head first may cause potential cervical
spine compromise as the torso is immobilized. Determining whether to use a vest-style
immobilization device or a long spine board is based on the patient's condition. Obviously, you
should never ask a patient with a potential spinal injury to move his or her head around.


A middle-aged woman took three of her prescribed nitroglycerin tablets after she began
experiencing chest pain. She complains of a bad headache and is still experiencing chest pain.
You should assume that:
• A:her chest pain is not cardiac-related.
• B:her blood pressure is elevated.
• C:she has ongoing cardiac ischemia.
• D:her nitroglycerin is no longer potent. - answer -;You selected C; This is correct!


Reason:

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