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DRT 1 LATEST REVIEW [STUDY GUIDE ] EXAM [QUESTIONS AND WELL PREPARED ANSWERS] ALL PASSED 100%

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DRT 1 LATEST REVIEW [STUDY GUIDE ] EXAM [QUESTIONS AND WELL PREPARED ANSWERS] ALL PASSED 100% is a nationally recognized NCLEX® preparation program designed to help nursing students and graduates pass the NCLEX-RN® or NCLEX-PN® exam on the first attempt. It is known for its clear, structured teaching style and strong focus on test-taking strategies and clinical reasoning.

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DRT 1 LATEST REVIEW [STUDY
GUIDE ] EXAM [QUESTIONS AND
WELL PREPARED ANSWERS] ALL
PASSED 100%

Which of the following steps comes first in the quality assurance process?
a. Establishing thresholds for evaluation related to the indicators
b. Collecting and organizing data
c. Delineating the scope of practice
d. Assessing the effectiveness of an action - CORRECT ANSWER c. Delineating the
scope of practice

Joy, a 30-year-old female, is worried about the "mood" she has experienced for the past
few weeks. She says she feels "really sad" nearly every day and wants to know if she is
clinically depressed. Which of the following findings is required to confirm the
diagnosis?
a. Excessive guilt or feelings of worthlessness
b. Fatigue
c. Anhedonia --> diminished pleasure in almost all activities
d. insomnia - CORRECT ANSWER c. Anhedonia --> diminished pleasure in almost all
activities

During an annual exam, you notice a 12-year-old girl with breast enlargement without
separate nipple contour. You tell her she can expect which of the following next stage of
her development?
a. Breast buds with areolar enlargement
b. Receding areolas and retracting nipples
c. Sparse, pale, fine pubic hair
d. Onset of menses - CORRECT ANSWER d. Onset of menses

What Tanner stage is sparse, pale, fine pubic hair? - CORRECT ANSWER Tanner
stage II

What Tanner stage is breast buds with areolar enlargement? - CORRECT ANSWER
Tanner stage II

What Tanner stage is breast enlargement without separate nipple contour? -
CORRECT ANSWER Tanner stage III

,What Tanner stage is onset of menses and projection of areola and nipple as secondary
mound? - CORRECT ANSWER Tanner stage IV

What Tanner stage is projection of areola and nipple as secondary - CORRECT
ANSWER Tanner stage IV

What Tanner stage is receding areolas and retracting nipples? - CORRECT ANSWER
Tanner stage V --> menstruation has already begun

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of severe asthma in adults?
a. Symptoms throughout the day
b. Extreme limitations on normal activity
c. Predicted forced expiratory value in 1 s < 60%
d. Nighttime awakenings 3-4 times per month - CORRECT ANSWER d. Nighttime
awakenings 3-4 times per month

An African American complains of being constantly out of breath even in the absence of
strenuous activity. He also noticed a sudden onset of severe pain in his back and chest.
He has a hemoglobin of 13g/dL. What disease is this patient experiencing and which of
the following would be the LEAST appropriate treatment?
a. 5 units of pack RBC
b. Oxygen
c. Intravenous fluids
d. Analgesics - CORRECT ANSWER a. 5 units of pack RBC

A 54-year-old is being screened for HTN, a condition that runs in his family. Which of
the following findings is NOT consistent with a diagnosis of significant HTN?
a. Epistaxis
b. A subparietal headache
c. Blurred vision
d. A S4 heart sound - CORRECT ANSWER b. A subparietal headache

What type of headache is associated with HTN?
a. Suboccipital
b. Subparietal - CORRECT ANSWER a. Suboccipital

What type of headache is associated with intracranial bleeding?
a. Suboccipital
b. Subparietal - CORRECT ANSWER b. Subparietal

What is an S4 heart sounds associated with? - CORRECT ANSWER Left ventricular
hypertrophy

An 8-month-old baby presents with bluish skin and a cleft palate. The NP notes that the
baby is twitching around her mouth, as well as spasms in her hand and arms. Her
parents also report seizures. Upon further observation, the NP learns that the baby is

, also developmentally delayed in many areas. Which of the following should be part of
your differential diagnosis?
a. Marfan syndrome
b. Tay-Sachs disease
c. Turner syndrome
d. DiGeorge syndrome - CORRECT ANSWER d. DiGeorge syndrome

What are characteristics of Tay-Sachs disease? - CORRECT ANSWER Low muscle
tone, seizures, blindness, and deafness

What are characteristics of Marfan syndrome? - CORRECT ANSWER Thin extremities
and fingers, and a long, narrow face

What syndrome is characterized by lymphedema, short stature, and a webbed neck? -
CORRECT ANSWER Turner syndrome

A patient presents with pain and pressure over his face, reaching as far back as his
teeth. He also has a fever of 102F, which he has been treating with rest and fluids.
When asked when these occurred, he states 3 days ago. Which of the following is the
most effect treatment?
a. OTC antihistamines
b. Diazepam for the pain
c. OTC oral decongestants
d. Antibiotics - CORRECT ANSWER d. Antibiotics
S/S of sinusitis, but fever indicates bacterial infection

What best describes an I/VI murmur? - CORRECT ANSWER Barely audible

What best describes an II/VI murmur? - CORRECT ANSWER Audible but faint

What best describes an III/VI murmur? - CORRECT ANSWER Moderately loud and
easily heard

What best describes an IV/VI murmur? - CORRECT ANSWER Sound is loud and is
associated with a thrill

A man who recently attempted suicide is brought into your clinic by his wife. What is the
LEAST effective treatment for this patient?
a. Antipsychotics is patient is psychotic
b. Hospitalization if the situation is acute
c. Intervention if the patient's risk if escalating
d. Antidepressants if the situation is chronic - CORRECT ANSWER c. Intervention if
the patient's risk if escalating

A 75-year-old diabetic male requires treatment for pneumonia. Which of the following
drugs is NOT recommended for this patient?

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