1
Virtual ATI Greenlight Comprehensive
Predictor 2026/2027 Actual Exam with
2 Complete Versions | Correct
Answers, Rationales & Verified
Solutions | Graded A+
VERSION 1
TRADITIONAL MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS (Q1-80)
Q1: A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide 40 mg IV twice daily. Which assessment
finding BEST indicates the medication is effective?
A. Weight loss of 1 kg over 24 hours.
B. Decreased bibasilar crackles on lung auscultation.
C. Increased urine output of 100 mL over 4 hours.
D. Potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L.
Correct Answer: B
Verified Solution & Rationale: This is correct because decreased crackles directly reflects
reduced pulmonary congestion, the primary therapeutic goal of loop diuretics in heart failure
management.
Q2: The nurse is caring for a client 24 hours post-op total hip replacement. Which finding
requires IMMEDIATE intervention?
A. The client reports pain level of 6/10 at the surgical site.
B. The client's affected leg is externally rotated and shortened.
C. The client has 200 mL of serosanguinous drainage in the Jackson-Pratt drain.
D. The client requests assistance to ambulate to the bathroom.
,2
Correct Answer: B
Verified Solution & Rationale: This is correct because external rotation and shortening of the
affected limb indicates possible prosthesis dislocation, requiring immediate medical evaluation to
prevent neurovascular compromise.
Q3: A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus presents with blood glucose of 48 mg/dL. Which
assessment finding indicates the client's hypoglycemia is resolving after treatment?
A. Client reports feeling less anxious and more alert.
B. Client's blood pressure increases from 110/70 to 128/82 mmHg.
C. Client's respiratory rate decreases from 24 to 16 breaths/minute.
D. Client's skin becomes warm and dry.
Correct Answer: A
Verified Solution & Rationale: This is correct because improved neurological symptoms directly
reflect restoration of cerebral glucose supply, the primary indicator of successful hypoglycemia
treatment.
Q4: The nurse is assessing a client receiving heparin infusion at 18 units/kg/hr. The client's aPTT
is 92 seconds (control 30 seconds). What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Continue the infusion as prescribed.
B. Increase the infusion rate by 2 units/kg/hr.
C. Stop the infusion and notify the provider immediately.
D. Obtain a STAT CBC and platelet count.
Correct Answer: C
Verified Solution & Rationale: This is correct because an aPTT of 92 seconds represents
supratherapeutic anticoagulation, creating immediate bleeding risk requiring infusion
discontinuation and provider notification.
Q5: A primigravida at 38 weeks gestation is experiencing contractions every 5 minutes lasting 60
seconds. She reports feeling the urge to push. What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Perform a sterile vaginal examination to assess dilation.
B. Encourage the client to use breathing techniques.
C. Instruct the client to pant or blow during contractions.
D. Notify the provider that delivery is imminent.
,3
Correct Answer: C
Verified Solution & Rationale: This is correct because panting or blowing prevents premature
pushing, which could cause cervical edema and lacerations if dilation is incomplete.
Q6: The nurse is preparing to administer oral potassium chloride 40 mEq to a client with
hypokalemia. Which finding requires the nurse to withhold the medication?
A. Client reports nausea and refuses the medication.
B. Client's urine output is 35 mL/hr.
C. Client's potassium level is 3.2 mEq/L.
D. Client is receiving furosemide 20 mg daily.
Correct Answer: B
Verified Solution & Rationale: This is correct because urine output less than 30 mL/hr indicates
inadequate renal function, creating high risk for hyperkalemia when administering potassium
supplements.
Q7: A client with chronic kidney disease stage 4 is receiving education. Which dietary statement
by the client indicates need for further teaching?
A. "I will limit my protein intake to 0.6 g/kg/day."
B. "I can eat bananas and oranges daily for potassium."
C. "I will restrict my sodium intake to 2000 mg per day."
D. "I need to limit my daily fluid intake to 1500 mL."
Correct Answer: B
Verified Solution & Rationale: This is correct because bananas and oranges are high-potassium
foods contraindicated in CKD stage 4 due to impaired renal excretion and hyperkalemia risk.
Q8: The nurse is caring for a client with chest tube placed for pneumothorax. The nurse observes
continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber. What is the priority intervention?
A. Document normal findings and continue to monitor.
B. Reinforce the chest tube dressing with additional tape.
C. Temporarily clamp the chest tube to check for air leaks.
D. Check all connections and notify the provider of possible air leak.
Correct Answer: D
, 4
Verified Solution & Rationale: This is correct because continuous bubbling indicates an air leak
requiring immediate identification of disconnection versus pleural air leak, both necessitating
prompt intervention.
Q9: A client with major depressive disorder is started on sertraline 50 mg daily. Which statement
by the client after 5 days requires immediate nursing intervention?
A. "I feel a little more energetic but still very sad."
B. "My sleep is improving and I'm eating better."
C. "I have a plan to end my life this weekend."
D. "I'm having some mild nausea after taking the medication."
Correct Answer: C
Verified Solution & This is correct because emergence of a specific suicide plan represents
imminent self-harm risk that requires immediate safety intervention and mental health crisis
management.
Q10: The nurse is caring for a client receiving chemotherapy with a platelet count of
12,000/mm³. Which action is most appropriate?
A. Encourage gentle oral hygiene with a soft toothbrush.
B. Administer aspirin for headache as ordered.
C. Perform vigorous chest physiotherapy every 4 hours.
D. Apply a heating pad to sore muscles.
Correct Answer: A
Verified Solution & Rationale: This is correct because soft toothbrush use minimizes oral
mucosal trauma in severe thrombocytopenia, reducing risk of hemorrhage.
Q11: A client with newly diagnosed hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. Which instruction is
most important for the nurse to provide?
A. "Take this medication at bedtime to reduce dizziness."
B. "Avoid eating grapefruit while taking this medication."
C. "Notify your provider if you develop a persistent cough."
D. "Increase your dietary potassium intake."
Correct Answer: C
Virtual ATI Greenlight Comprehensive
Predictor 2026/2027 Actual Exam with
2 Complete Versions | Correct
Answers, Rationales & Verified
Solutions | Graded A+
VERSION 1
TRADITIONAL MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS (Q1-80)
Q1: A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide 40 mg IV twice daily. Which assessment
finding BEST indicates the medication is effective?
A. Weight loss of 1 kg over 24 hours.
B. Decreased bibasilar crackles on lung auscultation.
C. Increased urine output of 100 mL over 4 hours.
D. Potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L.
Correct Answer: B
Verified Solution & Rationale: This is correct because decreased crackles directly reflects
reduced pulmonary congestion, the primary therapeutic goal of loop diuretics in heart failure
management.
Q2: The nurse is caring for a client 24 hours post-op total hip replacement. Which finding
requires IMMEDIATE intervention?
A. The client reports pain level of 6/10 at the surgical site.
B. The client's affected leg is externally rotated and shortened.
C. The client has 200 mL of serosanguinous drainage in the Jackson-Pratt drain.
D. The client requests assistance to ambulate to the bathroom.
,2
Correct Answer: B
Verified Solution & Rationale: This is correct because external rotation and shortening of the
affected limb indicates possible prosthesis dislocation, requiring immediate medical evaluation to
prevent neurovascular compromise.
Q3: A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus presents with blood glucose of 48 mg/dL. Which
assessment finding indicates the client's hypoglycemia is resolving after treatment?
A. Client reports feeling less anxious and more alert.
B. Client's blood pressure increases from 110/70 to 128/82 mmHg.
C. Client's respiratory rate decreases from 24 to 16 breaths/minute.
D. Client's skin becomes warm and dry.
Correct Answer: A
Verified Solution & Rationale: This is correct because improved neurological symptoms directly
reflect restoration of cerebral glucose supply, the primary indicator of successful hypoglycemia
treatment.
Q4: The nurse is assessing a client receiving heparin infusion at 18 units/kg/hr. The client's aPTT
is 92 seconds (control 30 seconds). What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Continue the infusion as prescribed.
B. Increase the infusion rate by 2 units/kg/hr.
C. Stop the infusion and notify the provider immediately.
D. Obtain a STAT CBC and platelet count.
Correct Answer: C
Verified Solution & Rationale: This is correct because an aPTT of 92 seconds represents
supratherapeutic anticoagulation, creating immediate bleeding risk requiring infusion
discontinuation and provider notification.
Q5: A primigravida at 38 weeks gestation is experiencing contractions every 5 minutes lasting 60
seconds. She reports feeling the urge to push. What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Perform a sterile vaginal examination to assess dilation.
B. Encourage the client to use breathing techniques.
C. Instruct the client to pant or blow during contractions.
D. Notify the provider that delivery is imminent.
,3
Correct Answer: C
Verified Solution & Rationale: This is correct because panting or blowing prevents premature
pushing, which could cause cervical edema and lacerations if dilation is incomplete.
Q6: The nurse is preparing to administer oral potassium chloride 40 mEq to a client with
hypokalemia. Which finding requires the nurse to withhold the medication?
A. Client reports nausea and refuses the medication.
B. Client's urine output is 35 mL/hr.
C. Client's potassium level is 3.2 mEq/L.
D. Client is receiving furosemide 20 mg daily.
Correct Answer: B
Verified Solution & Rationale: This is correct because urine output less than 30 mL/hr indicates
inadequate renal function, creating high risk for hyperkalemia when administering potassium
supplements.
Q7: A client with chronic kidney disease stage 4 is receiving education. Which dietary statement
by the client indicates need for further teaching?
A. "I will limit my protein intake to 0.6 g/kg/day."
B. "I can eat bananas and oranges daily for potassium."
C. "I will restrict my sodium intake to 2000 mg per day."
D. "I need to limit my daily fluid intake to 1500 mL."
Correct Answer: B
Verified Solution & Rationale: This is correct because bananas and oranges are high-potassium
foods contraindicated in CKD stage 4 due to impaired renal excretion and hyperkalemia risk.
Q8: The nurse is caring for a client with chest tube placed for pneumothorax. The nurse observes
continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber. What is the priority intervention?
A. Document normal findings and continue to monitor.
B. Reinforce the chest tube dressing with additional tape.
C. Temporarily clamp the chest tube to check for air leaks.
D. Check all connections and notify the provider of possible air leak.
Correct Answer: D
, 4
Verified Solution & Rationale: This is correct because continuous bubbling indicates an air leak
requiring immediate identification of disconnection versus pleural air leak, both necessitating
prompt intervention.
Q9: A client with major depressive disorder is started on sertraline 50 mg daily. Which statement
by the client after 5 days requires immediate nursing intervention?
A. "I feel a little more energetic but still very sad."
B. "My sleep is improving and I'm eating better."
C. "I have a plan to end my life this weekend."
D. "I'm having some mild nausea after taking the medication."
Correct Answer: C
Verified Solution & This is correct because emergence of a specific suicide plan represents
imminent self-harm risk that requires immediate safety intervention and mental health crisis
management.
Q10: The nurse is caring for a client receiving chemotherapy with a platelet count of
12,000/mm³. Which action is most appropriate?
A. Encourage gentle oral hygiene with a soft toothbrush.
B. Administer aspirin for headache as ordered.
C. Perform vigorous chest physiotherapy every 4 hours.
D. Apply a heating pad to sore muscles.
Correct Answer: A
Verified Solution & Rationale: This is correct because soft toothbrush use minimizes oral
mucosal trauma in severe thrombocytopenia, reducing risk of hemorrhage.
Q11: A client with newly diagnosed hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. Which instruction is
most important for the nurse to provide?
A. "Take this medication at bedtime to reduce dizziness."
B. "Avoid eating grapefruit while taking this medication."
C. "Notify your provider if you develop a persistent cough."
D. "Increase your dietary potassium intake."
Correct Answer: C
