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EACVI Cardiac Computed Tomography (CCT)Actual
Exam Success Kit– 200 Questions with Answers &
Rationales | FREE PDF
Introduction:
This exam is designed for cardiology professionals, radiologists, and trainees preparing for
the European Association of Cardiovascular Imaging (EACVI) Cardiac Computed
Tomography (CCT) certification or for self-assessment in advanced cardiac imaging.
The exam includes 200 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) covering:
Coronary anatomy and physiology
Coronary artery disease and plaque characterization
CT imaging protocols, reconstruction techniques, and artifacts
Radiation safety, contrast protocols, and image optimization
Functional and structural assessment of the heart
Each question is provided with a correct answer and a detailed rationale, allowing you to
understand the reasoning behind the answer and reinforcing key learning points.
1. The primary advantage of prospective ECG-triggered cardiac CT is:
A. Improved temporal resolution
B. Reduced radiation dose
C. Better contrast timing
D. Higher spatial resolution
Answer: B
Rationale: Prospective ECG triggering acquires images only during
specific phases of the cardiac cycle, significantly reducing radiation
exposure compared to retrospective gating, which scans throughout the
cycle.
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2. Optimal heart rate for coronary CTA is:
A. >80 bpm
B. 70–80 bpm
C. <65 bpm
D. <90 bpm
Answer: C
Rationale: Low heart rates (<65 bpm) reduce motion artifacts in coronary
arteries, improving image quality for accurate stenosis evaluation.
3. Most commonly used beta-blocker for heart rate control in CCTA is:
A. Propranolol
B. Metoprolol
C. Atenolol
D. Carvedilol
Answer: B
Rationale: Metoprolol, either IV or oral, is fast-acting and has predictable
effects for lowering heart rate prior to scanning.
4. Sublingual nitroglycerin is administered prior to CCTA to:
A. Reduce heart rate
B. Dilate coronary arteries
C. Improve contrast timing
D. Reduce radiation dose
Answer: B
Rationale: Nitroglycerin dilates coronary arteries, enhancing visualization
of lumen diameter and improving detection of stenosis.
5. Which ECG gating method allows functional assessment?
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A. Prospective triggering
B. High-pitch spiral
C. Retrospective gating
D. Step-and-shoot
Answer: C
Rationale: Retrospective gating acquires data throughout the cardiac
cycle, allowing reconstruction of multiple phases and assessment of valve
motion and cardiac function.
6. The Agatston score quantifies:
A. Coronary stenosis severity
B. Coronary artery calcification
C. Myocardial perfusion
D. Plaque composition
Answer: B
Rationale: The Agatston score measures calcified plaque burden in the
coronary arteries, which correlates with atherosclerotic risk.
7. A coronary calcium score of zero indicates:
A. No coronary artery disease
B. Very low likelihood of obstructive CAD
C. High plaque burden
D. Acute coronary syndrome
Answer: B
Rationale: While zero calcium does not guarantee absence of non-
calcified plaque, it strongly predicts a very low likelihood of obstructive
CAD.
8. Which coronary artery most commonly supplies the AV node?
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A. LAD
B. LCx
C. RCA
D. Diagonal branch
Answer: C
Rationale: In ~85% of the population, the AV nodal artery arises from the
RCA in right-dominant circulation.
9. Optimal reconstruction phase for coronary CTA is:
A. End-systole
B. Mid-diastole (70–80%)
C. Early systole
D. End-expiration
Answer: B
Rationale: Mid-diastole provides minimal coronary motion in patients with
controlled heart rates, giving the best image quality for stenosis
assessment.
10. Blooming artifact is most commonly caused by:
A. Motion
B. Calcified plaque
C. Beam hardening
D. Poor contrast timing
Answer: B
Rationale: Dense calcified plaque exaggerates apparent stenosis by
“blooming,” reducing diagnostic accuracy.
11. Which CT detector characteristic improves spatial resolution?
EACVI Cardiac Computed Tomography (CCT)Actual
Exam Success Kit– 200 Questions with Answers &
Rationales | FREE PDF
Introduction:
This exam is designed for cardiology professionals, radiologists, and trainees preparing for
the European Association of Cardiovascular Imaging (EACVI) Cardiac Computed
Tomography (CCT) certification or for self-assessment in advanced cardiac imaging.
The exam includes 200 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) covering:
Coronary anatomy and physiology
Coronary artery disease and plaque characterization
CT imaging protocols, reconstruction techniques, and artifacts
Radiation safety, contrast protocols, and image optimization
Functional and structural assessment of the heart
Each question is provided with a correct answer and a detailed rationale, allowing you to
understand the reasoning behind the answer and reinforcing key learning points.
1. The primary advantage of prospective ECG-triggered cardiac CT is:
A. Improved temporal resolution
B. Reduced radiation dose
C. Better contrast timing
D. Higher spatial resolution
Answer: B
Rationale: Prospective ECG triggering acquires images only during
specific phases of the cardiac cycle, significantly reducing radiation
exposure compared to retrospective gating, which scans throughout the
cycle.
,2|Page
2. Optimal heart rate for coronary CTA is:
A. >80 bpm
B. 70–80 bpm
C. <65 bpm
D. <90 bpm
Answer: C
Rationale: Low heart rates (<65 bpm) reduce motion artifacts in coronary
arteries, improving image quality for accurate stenosis evaluation.
3. Most commonly used beta-blocker for heart rate control in CCTA is:
A. Propranolol
B. Metoprolol
C. Atenolol
D. Carvedilol
Answer: B
Rationale: Metoprolol, either IV or oral, is fast-acting and has predictable
effects for lowering heart rate prior to scanning.
4. Sublingual nitroglycerin is administered prior to CCTA to:
A. Reduce heart rate
B. Dilate coronary arteries
C. Improve contrast timing
D. Reduce radiation dose
Answer: B
Rationale: Nitroglycerin dilates coronary arteries, enhancing visualization
of lumen diameter and improving detection of stenosis.
5. Which ECG gating method allows functional assessment?
,3|Page
A. Prospective triggering
B. High-pitch spiral
C. Retrospective gating
D. Step-and-shoot
Answer: C
Rationale: Retrospective gating acquires data throughout the cardiac
cycle, allowing reconstruction of multiple phases and assessment of valve
motion and cardiac function.
6. The Agatston score quantifies:
A. Coronary stenosis severity
B. Coronary artery calcification
C. Myocardial perfusion
D. Plaque composition
Answer: B
Rationale: The Agatston score measures calcified plaque burden in the
coronary arteries, which correlates with atherosclerotic risk.
7. A coronary calcium score of zero indicates:
A. No coronary artery disease
B. Very low likelihood of obstructive CAD
C. High plaque burden
D. Acute coronary syndrome
Answer: B
Rationale: While zero calcium does not guarantee absence of non-
calcified plaque, it strongly predicts a very low likelihood of obstructive
CAD.
8. Which coronary artery most commonly supplies the AV node?
, 4|Page
A. LAD
B. LCx
C. RCA
D. Diagonal branch
Answer: C
Rationale: In ~85% of the population, the AV nodal artery arises from the
RCA in right-dominant circulation.
9. Optimal reconstruction phase for coronary CTA is:
A. End-systole
B. Mid-diastole (70–80%)
C. Early systole
D. End-expiration
Answer: B
Rationale: Mid-diastole provides minimal coronary motion in patients with
controlled heart rates, giving the best image quality for stenosis
assessment.
10. Blooming artifact is most commonly caused by:
A. Motion
B. Calcified plaque
C. Beam hardening
D. Poor contrast timing
Answer: B
Rationale: Dense calcified plaque exaggerates apparent stenosis by
“blooming,” reducing diagnostic accuracy.
11. Which CT detector characteristic improves spatial resolution?
