ATI RN VATI Comprehensive Predictor
Proctored Exam 2026 – 160 Verified
Questions, Detailed Rationales & Pass-
Fast Prep
Question 1
A nurse reviews a client’s sleep history. Which two findings may
interfere with the client’s sleep?
A. Bedtime
B. Use of electronic devices
C. Evening meal
D. Medication
E. Caffeine use
F. Exercise schedule
Correct Answer: C and F
Rationale:
Eating a heavy meal late in the evening increases gastrointestinal
activity and can delay sleep onset. Exercising close to bedtime raises
body temperature and stimulates the sympathetic nervous system,
making relaxation difficult. Both factors interfere with normal circadian
rhythm. Adjusting meal and exercise timing promotes improved sleep
quality.
Question 2
A nurse is caring for a school-age child with celiac disease. Which food
should be included in the child’s diet?
,A. Rye bread
B. Whole wheat pretzels
C. Graham crackers
D. Wild rice
Correct Answer: D. Wild rice
Rationale:
Celiac disease requires complete avoidance of gluten. Rye, wheat, and
graham flour all contain gluten and damage intestinal villi. Wild rice is
naturally gluten-free and safe for consumption. Including gluten-free
grains prevents malabsorption and supports growth.
Question 3
A client with lactose intolerance eliminates dairy from the diet. Which
food should be increased to maintain calcium intake?
A. Ground beef
B. Peanut butter
C. Kale
D. Canoes
Correct Answer: C. Kale
Rationale:
Dairy products are primary calcium sources. Kale provides a rich plant-
based source of absorbable calcium. Adequate calcium intake prevents
osteoporosis and supports neuromuscular function. Ground beef and
peanut butter do not replace calcium needs.
Question 4
A client reports dyspnea on exertion, crackles in lungs, and an S3 heart
,sound. The nurse identifies the client is experiencing:
A. Urinary tract infection
B. Fluid volume deficit
C. Heart failure
D. Atrial fibrillation
Correct Answer: C. Heart failure
Rationale:
Crackles indicate pulmonary congestion. An S3 heart sound reflects
ventricular volume overload. Dyspnea on exertion is a hallmark
symptom of heart failure. These findings collectively confirm impaired
cardiac pumping ability.
Question 5
Following thoracic surgery, a nurse administers scheduled pain
medication. What is the rationale?
A. Suppresses cough reflex
B. Decreases anxiety
C. Reduces respiratory rate
D. Facilitates deep breathing
Correct Answer: D. Facilitates deep breathing
Rationale:
Thoracic incisions cause severe pain that limits chest expansion.
Adequate analgesia allows deep breathing and effective coughing. This
prevents atelectasis and pneumonia. Respiratory depression is
monitored, but deep breathing promotion is the priority goal.
Question 6
, A client on a heparin drip develops hematuria and has an aPTT of 100
seconds. What should the nurse do first?
A. Turn off the heparin drip
B. Administer protamine sulfate
C. Repeat aPTT
D. Obtain chest x-ray
Correct Answer: A. Turn off the heparin drip
Rationale:
An excessively prolonged aPTT with bleeding indicates over-
anticoagulation. The immediate priority is stopping the heparin infusion
to prevent further bleeding. Protamine may be given next, but only after
stopping heparin. Rapid intervention prevents hemorrhage.
Question 7
A 6-year-old child presents with fever, conjunctivitis, rash, cracked lips,
and peeling hands. Which condition is most likely?
A. Reye’s syndrome
B. Varicella
C. Kawasaki disease
D. Rheumatic fever
Correct Answer: C. Kawasaki disease
Rationale:
Kawasaki disease presents with prolonged fever, mucocutaneous
inflammation, and extremity peeling. It is a medium-vessel vasculitis
common in young children. Early recognition prevents coronary artery
aneurysms. Treatment includes IV immunoglobulin and aspirin.
GENERATED EXAM QUESTIONS CONTINUE
Proctored Exam 2026 – 160 Verified
Questions, Detailed Rationales & Pass-
Fast Prep
Question 1
A nurse reviews a client’s sleep history. Which two findings may
interfere with the client’s sleep?
A. Bedtime
B. Use of electronic devices
C. Evening meal
D. Medication
E. Caffeine use
F. Exercise schedule
Correct Answer: C and F
Rationale:
Eating a heavy meal late in the evening increases gastrointestinal
activity and can delay sleep onset. Exercising close to bedtime raises
body temperature and stimulates the sympathetic nervous system,
making relaxation difficult. Both factors interfere with normal circadian
rhythm. Adjusting meal and exercise timing promotes improved sleep
quality.
Question 2
A nurse is caring for a school-age child with celiac disease. Which food
should be included in the child’s diet?
,A. Rye bread
B. Whole wheat pretzels
C. Graham crackers
D. Wild rice
Correct Answer: D. Wild rice
Rationale:
Celiac disease requires complete avoidance of gluten. Rye, wheat, and
graham flour all contain gluten and damage intestinal villi. Wild rice is
naturally gluten-free and safe for consumption. Including gluten-free
grains prevents malabsorption and supports growth.
Question 3
A client with lactose intolerance eliminates dairy from the diet. Which
food should be increased to maintain calcium intake?
A. Ground beef
B. Peanut butter
C. Kale
D. Canoes
Correct Answer: C. Kale
Rationale:
Dairy products are primary calcium sources. Kale provides a rich plant-
based source of absorbable calcium. Adequate calcium intake prevents
osteoporosis and supports neuromuscular function. Ground beef and
peanut butter do not replace calcium needs.
Question 4
A client reports dyspnea on exertion, crackles in lungs, and an S3 heart
,sound. The nurse identifies the client is experiencing:
A. Urinary tract infection
B. Fluid volume deficit
C. Heart failure
D. Atrial fibrillation
Correct Answer: C. Heart failure
Rationale:
Crackles indicate pulmonary congestion. An S3 heart sound reflects
ventricular volume overload. Dyspnea on exertion is a hallmark
symptom of heart failure. These findings collectively confirm impaired
cardiac pumping ability.
Question 5
Following thoracic surgery, a nurse administers scheduled pain
medication. What is the rationale?
A. Suppresses cough reflex
B. Decreases anxiety
C. Reduces respiratory rate
D. Facilitates deep breathing
Correct Answer: D. Facilitates deep breathing
Rationale:
Thoracic incisions cause severe pain that limits chest expansion.
Adequate analgesia allows deep breathing and effective coughing. This
prevents atelectasis and pneumonia. Respiratory depression is
monitored, but deep breathing promotion is the priority goal.
Question 6
, A client on a heparin drip develops hematuria and has an aPTT of 100
seconds. What should the nurse do first?
A. Turn off the heparin drip
B. Administer protamine sulfate
C. Repeat aPTT
D. Obtain chest x-ray
Correct Answer: A. Turn off the heparin drip
Rationale:
An excessively prolonged aPTT with bleeding indicates over-
anticoagulation. The immediate priority is stopping the heparin infusion
to prevent further bleeding. Protamine may be given next, but only after
stopping heparin. Rapid intervention prevents hemorrhage.
Question 7
A 6-year-old child presents with fever, conjunctivitis, rash, cracked lips,
and peeling hands. Which condition is most likely?
A. Reye’s syndrome
B. Varicella
C. Kawasaki disease
D. Rheumatic fever
Correct Answer: C. Kawasaki disease
Rationale:
Kawasaki disease presents with prolonged fever, mucocutaneous
inflammation, and extremity peeling. It is a medium-vessel vasculitis
common in young children. Early recognition prevents coronary artery
aneurysms. Treatment includes IV immunoglobulin and aspirin.
GENERATED EXAM QUESTIONS CONTINUE
