Air Methods Critical Care
Comprehensive Resource To Help You Ace
2026-2027 Includes Frequently Tested
Questions With ELABORATED 100% Correct
COMPLETE SOLUTIONS
Guaranteed Pass First Attempt!!
Current Update!!
1. What defines hypoxic respiratory failure and its treatment?
ANSWER PaO₂ < 60 mmHg; treat with increased PEEP and FiO₂.
2. What defines hypercarbic respiratory failure and its treatment?
ANSWER CO₂ > 45 mmHg with respiratory acidosis; increase tidal
volume, then respiratory rate.
3. What are key features of asthma?
ANSWER Difficulty exhaling, wheezing, bronchospasm, flattened
diaphragm on CXR, respiratory acidosis.
4. How are asthma and COPD managed on the ventilator?
ANSWER Bronchodilators, steroids, IV fluids, increased I:E ratio, low
PEEP initially, increased FiO₂, ketamine for sedation.
, 5. What are the classification, dose, onset, and duration of Rocuronium?
ANSWER Non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocker; 0.6–1.2 mg/kg IV; <2-
minute onset; 30–60-minute duration. Refrigerated. Maintenance: 0.1–0.2
mg/kg IV every 20–30 minutes.
6. What are the dosing and key effects of Vecuronium?
ANSWER Non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocker; 0.1–0.15 mg/kg for
intubation; 0.01–0.1 mg/kg post-intubation; decreases ICP; used after
succinylcholine to maintain paralysis.
7. What is the gold standard for confirming ETT placement in hospital?
Answer: Chest X-ray.
8. How is ETT placement confirmed in the field?
Answer: Visualization of the tube passing through the vocal cords and
end-tidal CO₂ detection.
9. What is the appropriate depth of ETT placement?
Answer: T2–T4 level, approximately 5 ± 2 cm above the carina
(pediatrics: ~1.5 cm above the carina).
10.What is Coopernail’s sign and what does it indicate?
Answer: Bruising of the scrotum or labia indicating pelvic or abdominal
bleeding, often associated with pelvic fracture.
11.What is Halstead’s sign?
Answer: A marbled appearance of the abdomen indicating internal
bleeding.
,12.What is Cullen’s sign most commonly associated with?
Answer: Ecchymosis around the umbilicus seen with pancreatitis.
13.What is Murphy’s sign and what condition does it suggest?
Answer: Pain with palpation of the right upper quadrant during
inspiration, indicative of cholecystitis.
14. What are the key factors used to assess fetal well-being?
Answer: Viability (most important), fetal heart rate, and fetal movement.
15.What effects does PEEP have on the cardiopulmonary system?
Answer: Increases pulmonary vascular resistance, may cause
hypotension above 15 cmH₂O; normal PEEP is 5 cmH₂O and represents
the lowest pressure the lungs experience.
16.What are the correct steps in neonatal resuscitation?
Answer: Dry and warm the infant, position airway, suction mouth then
nose; provide tactile stimulation if HR <100 or apnea; give oxygen near
the face; begin BVM ventilation if unresponsive; reassess and reposition
airway; intubate if HR <60 after seconds of PPV; begin chest
compressions at a 3:1 ratio; administer epinephrine and fluids as
indicated.
17.. What are the classic signs and symptoms of a pulmonary contusion?
Answer: Chest pain, sternal bruising, progressive dyspnea, unilateral
decreased breath sounds, rales, low oxygen saturation despite oxygen,
hemoptysis, and dysrhythmias.
18. What occurs in a ruptured diaphragm and how does it present
clinically?
Answer: Abdominal contents herniate into the thoracic cavity
compressing the lung, causing dyspnea, dysphagia, abdominal pain,
, epigastric or chest pain radiating to the left shoulder (Kehr sign), bowel
sounds in lung fields, and decreased breath sounds on the affected side.
19.What findings suggest a tracheobronchial injury?
Answer: Hemoptysis, subcutaneous emphysema, persistent
pneumothorax or pneumomediastinum despite chest tube placement;
management includes advancing the ETT below the injury into the right
mainstem bronchus.
20.. What are the clinical signs of esophageal perforation?
Answer: Fever and hematemesis.
12. What is a fat embolus and when does it typically occur?
Answer: Release of fat cells into the bloodstream after long bone fractures,
presenting with fever and rash.
13. How much blood loss is associated with a humerus fracture?
Answer: Approximately 750 mL.
14. How much blood loss is associated with a femur fracture?
Answer: Approximately 1500 mL.
15. What does pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) assess and what is
normal?
Answer: Reflects left-sided heart pressures; elevated values indicate pulmonary
congestion, CHF, or cardiogenic shock; normal PAWP is 8–12 mmHg.
16. What is the appropriate depth for adult endotracheal tube placement?
Answer: Three times the ETT size or approximately 19–23 cm.
Comprehensive Resource To Help You Ace
2026-2027 Includes Frequently Tested
Questions With ELABORATED 100% Correct
COMPLETE SOLUTIONS
Guaranteed Pass First Attempt!!
Current Update!!
1. What defines hypoxic respiratory failure and its treatment?
ANSWER PaO₂ < 60 mmHg; treat with increased PEEP and FiO₂.
2. What defines hypercarbic respiratory failure and its treatment?
ANSWER CO₂ > 45 mmHg with respiratory acidosis; increase tidal
volume, then respiratory rate.
3. What are key features of asthma?
ANSWER Difficulty exhaling, wheezing, bronchospasm, flattened
diaphragm on CXR, respiratory acidosis.
4. How are asthma and COPD managed on the ventilator?
ANSWER Bronchodilators, steroids, IV fluids, increased I:E ratio, low
PEEP initially, increased FiO₂, ketamine for sedation.
, 5. What are the classification, dose, onset, and duration of Rocuronium?
ANSWER Non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocker; 0.6–1.2 mg/kg IV; <2-
minute onset; 30–60-minute duration. Refrigerated. Maintenance: 0.1–0.2
mg/kg IV every 20–30 minutes.
6. What are the dosing and key effects of Vecuronium?
ANSWER Non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocker; 0.1–0.15 mg/kg for
intubation; 0.01–0.1 mg/kg post-intubation; decreases ICP; used after
succinylcholine to maintain paralysis.
7. What is the gold standard for confirming ETT placement in hospital?
Answer: Chest X-ray.
8. How is ETT placement confirmed in the field?
Answer: Visualization of the tube passing through the vocal cords and
end-tidal CO₂ detection.
9. What is the appropriate depth of ETT placement?
Answer: T2–T4 level, approximately 5 ± 2 cm above the carina
(pediatrics: ~1.5 cm above the carina).
10.What is Coopernail’s sign and what does it indicate?
Answer: Bruising of the scrotum or labia indicating pelvic or abdominal
bleeding, often associated with pelvic fracture.
11.What is Halstead’s sign?
Answer: A marbled appearance of the abdomen indicating internal
bleeding.
,12.What is Cullen’s sign most commonly associated with?
Answer: Ecchymosis around the umbilicus seen with pancreatitis.
13.What is Murphy’s sign and what condition does it suggest?
Answer: Pain with palpation of the right upper quadrant during
inspiration, indicative of cholecystitis.
14. What are the key factors used to assess fetal well-being?
Answer: Viability (most important), fetal heart rate, and fetal movement.
15.What effects does PEEP have on the cardiopulmonary system?
Answer: Increases pulmonary vascular resistance, may cause
hypotension above 15 cmH₂O; normal PEEP is 5 cmH₂O and represents
the lowest pressure the lungs experience.
16.What are the correct steps in neonatal resuscitation?
Answer: Dry and warm the infant, position airway, suction mouth then
nose; provide tactile stimulation if HR <100 or apnea; give oxygen near
the face; begin BVM ventilation if unresponsive; reassess and reposition
airway; intubate if HR <60 after seconds of PPV; begin chest
compressions at a 3:1 ratio; administer epinephrine and fluids as
indicated.
17.. What are the classic signs and symptoms of a pulmonary contusion?
Answer: Chest pain, sternal bruising, progressive dyspnea, unilateral
decreased breath sounds, rales, low oxygen saturation despite oxygen,
hemoptysis, and dysrhythmias.
18. What occurs in a ruptured diaphragm and how does it present
clinically?
Answer: Abdominal contents herniate into the thoracic cavity
compressing the lung, causing dyspnea, dysphagia, abdominal pain,
, epigastric or chest pain radiating to the left shoulder (Kehr sign), bowel
sounds in lung fields, and decreased breath sounds on the affected side.
19.What findings suggest a tracheobronchial injury?
Answer: Hemoptysis, subcutaneous emphysema, persistent
pneumothorax or pneumomediastinum despite chest tube placement;
management includes advancing the ETT below the injury into the right
mainstem bronchus.
20.. What are the clinical signs of esophageal perforation?
Answer: Fever and hematemesis.
12. What is a fat embolus and when does it typically occur?
Answer: Release of fat cells into the bloodstream after long bone fractures,
presenting with fever and rash.
13. How much blood loss is associated with a humerus fracture?
Answer: Approximately 750 mL.
14. How much blood loss is associated with a femur fracture?
Answer: Approximately 1500 mL.
15. What does pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) assess and what is
normal?
Answer: Reflects left-sided heart pressures; elevated values indicate pulmonary
congestion, CHF, or cardiogenic shock; normal PAWP is 8–12 mmHg.
16. What is the appropriate depth for adult endotracheal tube placement?
Answer: Three times the ETT size or approximately 19–23 cm.
