EFMB WRITTEN TEST STUDY GUIDE
EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
GRADED A+ 2025/2026
Section 1 - Radiology: Imaging Trauma Patients in a Deployed Setting - ANS -
The initial radiographic evaluation of a trauma patient begins with supine Anterior-Posterior
(AP) chest and pelvis radiographs taken in the trauma bay usually with a(n) __________. -
ANS portable x-ray machine
T/F: Computed Tomography scanning has been largely replaced by Cervical Spine Radiographic
Evaluation (CSRE) and should only be performed when CSRE is unavailable. - ANS FALSE.
Cervical Spine Radiographic Evaluation (CSRE) has been largely replaced by Computed
Tomography (CT) and should only be performed when a CT is unavailable.
What is the lowest level of care equipped with a Computed Tomography (CT) Scanner? -
ANS Role 3
What is the lowest level of care equipped with a portable x-ray machine? - ANS Role 2
Members of the trauma team should have __________ aprons and thyroid shields available
near the trauma bay for radiation safety. - ANS lead
1 @COPYRIGHT 2025/2026 ALLRIGHTS RESERVED.
,Distance is also protective from radiation exposure. If feasible based on the patient's condition,
any personnel without lead shielding should move a short distance away from the x-ray unit.
The recommended minimal distance is __________ feet. - ANS Six (6)
While the FAST scan has been validated only in hemodynamically unstable blunt trauma
patients, it has become a standard tool in the trauma bay and Emergency Department (ED) in
most trauma patients. FAST stands for __________. - ANS Focused Abdominal Sonographic
Assessment for Trauma
FAST in combat trauma has a sensitivity of only 56% and and specificity of __________. -
ANS 98%
T/F: The FAST exam remains the most sensitive test for hollow viscus injury and mesenteric
injury. - ANS FALSE. Diagnostic Peritoneal Lavage (DPL) remains the most sensitive test for
hollow viscus injury and mesenteric injury.
T/F: At the Role 3, properly trained providers including radiologists, surgeons, and emergency
physicians, can perform and interpret FAST scans in the emergency department on a hand held
portable US device. - ANS TRUE
A FAST examination is performed with a portable hand-held machine most commonly using a
standard 3-7 MHz curved array __________ probe. - ANS Ultra Sound (US)
The standard FAST examination is focused on evaluating for the presence of __________ in
certain areas of the body. - ANS Free Intraperitoneal Fluid
When performing a FAST examination on a patient, you inspect the right upper quadrant. You
are inspecting between which two (2) organs? - ANS Liver & Kidney
When performing a FAST examination on a patient, you inspect the left upper quadrant. You are
inspecting between which two (2) organs? - ANS Spleen & Kidney
2 @COPYRIGHT 2025/2026 ALLRIGHTS RESERVED.
,An 18g __________ IV is typically desired for Computed Tomography IV access. -
ANS antecubital
T/F: The goal of Computed Tomography (CT) contrast injection is to provide concurrent solid
organ enhancement, arterial enhancement, and pulmonary arterial. - ANS TRUE
T/F: When performing Computed Tomography (CT) scan on a Military Working Dog, utilize a
scanning protocol based on the adult settings to include the doses of and rates of contrast
administration. - ANS FALSE. Utilize a scanning protocol based on the pediatric settings to
include the doses of and rates of contrast administration.
T/F: All patients evacuated through casualty evacuation should have images sent electronically
ahead of time as well as have a CD created to send with the patient as a backup. - ANS TRUE
T/F: Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) is widely used in theater, as its utility in the acute
management of combat trauma was extensively established during Operation Enduring
Freedom. - ANS FALSE. While Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) has been deployed to
theater in the past, its utility in the acute management of combat trauma has not been
established.
All trauma patients arriving at a Role __________ hospital will receive proper and expeditious
radiologic screening of injuries. - ANS 3
Section 2: Aural Blast Injury Acoustic Trauma & Hearing Loss - ANS -
T/F: Patients exposed to hazardous noise are only at risk for aural trauma. - ANS FALSE.
Service Members exposed to hazardous noise is impact noise or noise greater than 140 dB are
at high risk for acoustic trauma and subsequent hearing loss. Patients exposed to blasts are at
risk for both aural and acoustic trauma.
The symptoms of acoustic trauma are: - ANS 1. Hearing Loss
2. Tinnitus (Ringing in the Ear)
3. Aural Fullness
3 @COPYRIGHT 2025/2026 ALLRIGHTS RESERVED.
, 4. Recruitment (Ear Pain with Loud Noise)
5. Difficulty Localizing Sounds
6. Difficulty Hearing in a Noisy Background
7. Vertigo
"H-TARDD-V"
Acoustic trauma may result in sensorineural hearing loss (SNHL) that is either __________ or
__________. - ANS temporary (temporary threshold shift, TTS) or permanent (permanent
threshold shift, PTS)
The ear, specifically the __________, is the most sensitive organ to primary blast injury (PBI). -
ANS tympanic membrane (TM)
T/F: the smaller the size of the tympanic membrane perforation, the greater the likelihood is of
spontaneous closure. - ANS TRUE
The majority of tympanic membrane perforations that close spontaneously do so within the
first __________ after injury. - ANS 8 weeks
Acute management of intratemporal facial nerve injury is to provide objective documentation of
facial movement using the __________ grading scale. - ANS House-Brackmann
T/F: For significant facial pareses/paralyses, early administration of steroids must always be
provided regardless of contraindications. - ANS FALSE. Early administration of steroids should
be provided if not contraindicated, and referral for management by an otolaryngologist is
indicated.
Which inner ear abnormalities may cause vertigo? - ANS 1. Otic Capsule Violating Temporal
Bone Fractures
2. Secondary Infections of the Inner Ear or Vestibular Nerves
3. Trauma Induced Endolymphatic Hydrops
4 @COPYRIGHT 2025/2026 ALLRIGHTS RESERVED.
EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
GRADED A+ 2025/2026
Section 1 - Radiology: Imaging Trauma Patients in a Deployed Setting - ANS -
The initial radiographic evaluation of a trauma patient begins with supine Anterior-Posterior
(AP) chest and pelvis radiographs taken in the trauma bay usually with a(n) __________. -
ANS portable x-ray machine
T/F: Computed Tomography scanning has been largely replaced by Cervical Spine Radiographic
Evaluation (CSRE) and should only be performed when CSRE is unavailable. - ANS FALSE.
Cervical Spine Radiographic Evaluation (CSRE) has been largely replaced by Computed
Tomography (CT) and should only be performed when a CT is unavailable.
What is the lowest level of care equipped with a Computed Tomography (CT) Scanner? -
ANS Role 3
What is the lowest level of care equipped with a portable x-ray machine? - ANS Role 2
Members of the trauma team should have __________ aprons and thyroid shields available
near the trauma bay for radiation safety. - ANS lead
1 @COPYRIGHT 2025/2026 ALLRIGHTS RESERVED.
,Distance is also protective from radiation exposure. If feasible based on the patient's condition,
any personnel without lead shielding should move a short distance away from the x-ray unit.
The recommended minimal distance is __________ feet. - ANS Six (6)
While the FAST scan has been validated only in hemodynamically unstable blunt trauma
patients, it has become a standard tool in the trauma bay and Emergency Department (ED) in
most trauma patients. FAST stands for __________. - ANS Focused Abdominal Sonographic
Assessment for Trauma
FAST in combat trauma has a sensitivity of only 56% and and specificity of __________. -
ANS 98%
T/F: The FAST exam remains the most sensitive test for hollow viscus injury and mesenteric
injury. - ANS FALSE. Diagnostic Peritoneal Lavage (DPL) remains the most sensitive test for
hollow viscus injury and mesenteric injury.
T/F: At the Role 3, properly trained providers including radiologists, surgeons, and emergency
physicians, can perform and interpret FAST scans in the emergency department on a hand held
portable US device. - ANS TRUE
A FAST examination is performed with a portable hand-held machine most commonly using a
standard 3-7 MHz curved array __________ probe. - ANS Ultra Sound (US)
The standard FAST examination is focused on evaluating for the presence of __________ in
certain areas of the body. - ANS Free Intraperitoneal Fluid
When performing a FAST examination on a patient, you inspect the right upper quadrant. You
are inspecting between which two (2) organs? - ANS Liver & Kidney
When performing a FAST examination on a patient, you inspect the left upper quadrant. You are
inspecting between which two (2) organs? - ANS Spleen & Kidney
2 @COPYRIGHT 2025/2026 ALLRIGHTS RESERVED.
,An 18g __________ IV is typically desired for Computed Tomography IV access. -
ANS antecubital
T/F: The goal of Computed Tomography (CT) contrast injection is to provide concurrent solid
organ enhancement, arterial enhancement, and pulmonary arterial. - ANS TRUE
T/F: When performing Computed Tomography (CT) scan on a Military Working Dog, utilize a
scanning protocol based on the adult settings to include the doses of and rates of contrast
administration. - ANS FALSE. Utilize a scanning protocol based on the pediatric settings to
include the doses of and rates of contrast administration.
T/F: All patients evacuated through casualty evacuation should have images sent electronically
ahead of time as well as have a CD created to send with the patient as a backup. - ANS TRUE
T/F: Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) is widely used in theater, as its utility in the acute
management of combat trauma was extensively established during Operation Enduring
Freedom. - ANS FALSE. While Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) has been deployed to
theater in the past, its utility in the acute management of combat trauma has not been
established.
All trauma patients arriving at a Role __________ hospital will receive proper and expeditious
radiologic screening of injuries. - ANS 3
Section 2: Aural Blast Injury Acoustic Trauma & Hearing Loss - ANS -
T/F: Patients exposed to hazardous noise are only at risk for aural trauma. - ANS FALSE.
Service Members exposed to hazardous noise is impact noise or noise greater than 140 dB are
at high risk for acoustic trauma and subsequent hearing loss. Patients exposed to blasts are at
risk for both aural and acoustic trauma.
The symptoms of acoustic trauma are: - ANS 1. Hearing Loss
2. Tinnitus (Ringing in the Ear)
3. Aural Fullness
3 @COPYRIGHT 2025/2026 ALLRIGHTS RESERVED.
, 4. Recruitment (Ear Pain with Loud Noise)
5. Difficulty Localizing Sounds
6. Difficulty Hearing in a Noisy Background
7. Vertigo
"H-TARDD-V"
Acoustic trauma may result in sensorineural hearing loss (SNHL) that is either __________ or
__________. - ANS temporary (temporary threshold shift, TTS) or permanent (permanent
threshold shift, PTS)
The ear, specifically the __________, is the most sensitive organ to primary blast injury (PBI). -
ANS tympanic membrane (TM)
T/F: the smaller the size of the tympanic membrane perforation, the greater the likelihood is of
spontaneous closure. - ANS TRUE
The majority of tympanic membrane perforations that close spontaneously do so within the
first __________ after injury. - ANS 8 weeks
Acute management of intratemporal facial nerve injury is to provide objective documentation of
facial movement using the __________ grading scale. - ANS House-Brackmann
T/F: For significant facial pareses/paralyses, early administration of steroids must always be
provided regardless of contraindications. - ANS FALSE. Early administration of steroids should
be provided if not contraindicated, and referral for management by an otolaryngologist is
indicated.
Which inner ear abnormalities may cause vertigo? - ANS 1. Otic Capsule Violating Temporal
Bone Fractures
2. Secondary Infections of the Inner Ear or Vestibular Nerves
3. Trauma Induced Endolymphatic Hydrops
4 @COPYRIGHT 2025/2026 ALLRIGHTS RESERVED.
