ESTUDYR
PHARMACOLOGY HESI MOST TESTED QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS GRADED A+ WITH RATIONALES
1. A nurse reviews a new prescription for phenelzine (Nardil), a monoamine oxidase
inhibitor (MAOI). Which assessment is most important?
A. Daily caffeine intake
B. Consumption of alcohol or tyramine-rich foods
C. History of insomnia
D. Recent weight changes
Rationale: MAOIs interact dangerously with tyramine-rich foods and alcohol, causing
hypertensive crisis.
2. The nurse administers haloperidol IM for the first time. Which adverse effect should be
assessed initially?
A. Akathisia
B. Sedation
C. Acute dystonia
D. Orthostatic hypotension
Rationale: Acute dystonic reactions are common early extrapyramidal effects of haloperidol.
3. Which client histories increase risk when using OTC decongestants? (Select all that apply)
A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Closed-angle glaucoma
C. Chronic hypertension
D. Hypothyroidism
Rationale: Decongestants increase intraocular pressure and blood pressure.
4. A client using ipratropium reports nausea, blurred vision, and insomnia. What is the
nurse’s priority action?
A. Encourage hydration
B. Administer with food
,ESTUDYR
C. Withhold medication and notify the provider
D. Reassure client
Rationale: These symptoms indicate anticholinergic toxicity.
5. A client with multiple sclerosis has severe weakness and visual changes. Which treatment
is best?
A. Oral prednisone
B. Interferon beta
C. High-dose IV methylprednisolone
D. Plasmapheresis
Rationale: Acute MS exacerbations are treated with high-dose IV corticosteroids.
6. Which finding indicates lactulose is effective in hepatic encephalopathy?
A. Reduced bilirubin
B. Increased bowel sounds
C. Decreased ammonia levels
D. Improved appetite
Rationale: Lactulose lowers ammonia by trapping it in the gut.
7. Which statement shows understanding of NPH insulin?
A. “It works immediately.”
B. ―It helps glucose move into my cells.‖
C. “It prevents hypoglycemia.”
D. “It replaces liver glycogen.”
Rationale: Insulin facilitates cellular glucose uptake.
8. Which medication should be withheld if nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea occur?
A. Allopurinol
B. Colchicine
C. Ibuprofen
D. Prednisone
, ESTUDYR
Rationale: GI symptoms indicate colchicine toxicity.
9. How does esomeprazole help GERD?
A. Neutralizes acid
B. Enhances motility
C. Promotes tissue healing by suppressing acid
D. Coats gastric mucosa
Rationale: Proton pump inhibitors allow mucosal healing.
10. How do beta blockers reduce intraocular pressure in glaucoma?
A. Increase drainage
B. Decrease aqueous humor production
C. Constrict pupil
D. Dilate trabecular meshwork
Rationale: Beta blockers reduce aqueous humor formation.
11. What is the action of miotic drugs in glaucoma?
A. Reduce production
B. Increase aqueous humor outflow
C. Dilate pupil
D. Relax ciliary muscle
Rationale: Miotics improve drainage through the trabecular meshwork.
12. Which insomnia prescription should be questioned in an older adult?
A. Zolpidem 5 mg
B. Melatonin
C. Eszopiclone 10 mg
D. Trazodone 25 mg
Rationale: High doses increase fall and cognitive risk in older adults.
PHARMACOLOGY HESI MOST TESTED QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS GRADED A+ WITH RATIONALES
1. A nurse reviews a new prescription for phenelzine (Nardil), a monoamine oxidase
inhibitor (MAOI). Which assessment is most important?
A. Daily caffeine intake
B. Consumption of alcohol or tyramine-rich foods
C. History of insomnia
D. Recent weight changes
Rationale: MAOIs interact dangerously with tyramine-rich foods and alcohol, causing
hypertensive crisis.
2. The nurse administers haloperidol IM for the first time. Which adverse effect should be
assessed initially?
A. Akathisia
B. Sedation
C. Acute dystonia
D. Orthostatic hypotension
Rationale: Acute dystonic reactions are common early extrapyramidal effects of haloperidol.
3. Which client histories increase risk when using OTC decongestants? (Select all that apply)
A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Closed-angle glaucoma
C. Chronic hypertension
D. Hypothyroidism
Rationale: Decongestants increase intraocular pressure and blood pressure.
4. A client using ipratropium reports nausea, blurred vision, and insomnia. What is the
nurse’s priority action?
A. Encourage hydration
B. Administer with food
,ESTUDYR
C. Withhold medication and notify the provider
D. Reassure client
Rationale: These symptoms indicate anticholinergic toxicity.
5. A client with multiple sclerosis has severe weakness and visual changes. Which treatment
is best?
A. Oral prednisone
B. Interferon beta
C. High-dose IV methylprednisolone
D. Plasmapheresis
Rationale: Acute MS exacerbations are treated with high-dose IV corticosteroids.
6. Which finding indicates lactulose is effective in hepatic encephalopathy?
A. Reduced bilirubin
B. Increased bowel sounds
C. Decreased ammonia levels
D. Improved appetite
Rationale: Lactulose lowers ammonia by trapping it in the gut.
7. Which statement shows understanding of NPH insulin?
A. “It works immediately.”
B. ―It helps glucose move into my cells.‖
C. “It prevents hypoglycemia.”
D. “It replaces liver glycogen.”
Rationale: Insulin facilitates cellular glucose uptake.
8. Which medication should be withheld if nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea occur?
A. Allopurinol
B. Colchicine
C. Ibuprofen
D. Prednisone
, ESTUDYR
Rationale: GI symptoms indicate colchicine toxicity.
9. How does esomeprazole help GERD?
A. Neutralizes acid
B. Enhances motility
C. Promotes tissue healing by suppressing acid
D. Coats gastric mucosa
Rationale: Proton pump inhibitors allow mucosal healing.
10. How do beta blockers reduce intraocular pressure in glaucoma?
A. Increase drainage
B. Decrease aqueous humor production
C. Constrict pupil
D. Dilate trabecular meshwork
Rationale: Beta blockers reduce aqueous humor formation.
11. What is the action of miotic drugs in glaucoma?
A. Reduce production
B. Increase aqueous humor outflow
C. Dilate pupil
D. Relax ciliary muscle
Rationale: Miotics improve drainage through the trabecular meshwork.
12. Which insomnia prescription should be questioned in an older adult?
A. Zolpidem 5 mg
B. Melatonin
C. Eszopiclone 10 mg
D. Trazodone 25 mg
Rationale: High doses increase fall and cognitive risk in older adults.
