WGU D027 Pathophysiology Final Exam
2026 – Verified Questions, Detailed
Rationales & Pass-Fast Study Pack
1. Which of the following is NOT a cellular function?
A. Respiration
B. Combustion
C. Metabolism
D. Reproduction
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Cells perform metabolism, respiration, growth, and reproduction as
essential life functions. Combustion is a chemical burning process and is
not a biological cellular function. Cellular respiration produces energy
through controlled biochemical reactions, not combustion. Therefore,
combustion is not a cellular function.
2. What are mitochondria primarily responsible for?
A. Protein synthesis
B. Energy production
C. DNA replication
D. Lipid storage
Correct Answer: B
,Rationale:
Mitochondria generate ATP through oxidative phosphorylation, making
them the energy-producing organelles of the cell. While they contain
their own DNA, their primary role is energy production. Cells with high
energy demands contain many mitochondria. Without mitochondria,
cells cannot sustain normal function.
3. Which of the following can cause edema?
A. Decreased capillary pressure
B. Increased lymphatic pressure
C. Decreased sodium retention
D. Increased plasma protein
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Edema occurs when fluid accumulates in interstitial spaces. Increased
lymphatic pressure impairs fluid drainage, leading to swelling.
Decreased plasma proteins and increased capillary pressure also cause
edema, but increased lymphatic pressure directly prevents fluid removal.
Therefore, lymphatic obstruction results in edema.
4. Which of the following best describes the result of cellular
reproduction (mitosis)?
A. Two haploid cells are produced
B. Four haploid cells are produced
C. Two diploid daughter cells are produced
D. One diploid and one haploid cell are produced
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Mitosis produces two identical diploid daughter cells. This process is
,responsible for growth and tissue repair. Haploid cells are produced only
through meiosis. Therefore, mitosis results in two diploid daughter cells.
5. What is an example of both hyperplasia and hypertrophy?
A. Muscle atrophy from immobilization
B. Uterine enlargement during pregnancy
C. Decrease in kidney size
D. Brain cell loss with aging
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
During pregnancy, the uterus enlarges due to both an increase in cell size
(hypertrophy) and an increase in cell number (hyperplasia). This is a
normal physiologic adaptation. Other options represent atrophy or
degeneration, not growth.
6. What hormone primarily regulates sodium balance in the body?
A. Insulin
B. Aldosterone
C. Cortisol
D. ADH
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Aldosterone acts on the kidneys to increase sodium reabsorption and
potassium excretion. This regulation directly controls extracellular fluid
volume and blood pressure. While ADH regulates water balance, sodium
balance is primarily controlled by aldosterone.
7. What is the alteration called if extracellular fluid volume is less than
normal?
,A. Hypertonic
B. Isotonic
C. Hypotonic
D. Acidotic
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
When extracellular fluid volume is decreased, the fluid becomes
hypotonic relative to intracellular fluid. This causes water to shift into
cells, leading to cellular swelling. Hypertonic conditions occur when
extracellular solute concentration is increased.
8. When in excess, what do buffers absorb?
A. Oxygen
B. Sodium
C. Hydrogen ions
D. Carbon dioxide
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Buffers maintain pH balance by absorbing excess hydrogen ions (H+).
This prevents dangerous changes in blood acidity. Buffer systems are
essential for acid-base homeostasis. Without buffers, small pH changes
would be life-threatening.
9. What is the process by which RNA directs the synthesis of
polypeptides?
A. Replication
B. Transcription
C. Translation
, D. Mitosis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Translation occurs at the ribosome, where messenger RNA (mRNA)
directs amino acid assembly into polypeptides. Transcription produces
RNA from DNA. Replication duplicates DNA. Therefore, translation is
protein synthesis.
10. What is the recurrence rate for autosomal dominant diseases?
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 100%
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Autosomal dominant disorders require only one defective gene from one
parent. Each child has a 50% chance of inheriting the disease. This
pattern appears in every generation. Therefore, recurrence risk is 50%.
11. What is the proportion of a population affected by a disease at a
specific point in time?
A. Incidence
B. Mortality rate
C. Prevalence
D. Morbidity
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
2026 – Verified Questions, Detailed
Rationales & Pass-Fast Study Pack
1. Which of the following is NOT a cellular function?
A. Respiration
B. Combustion
C. Metabolism
D. Reproduction
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Cells perform metabolism, respiration, growth, and reproduction as
essential life functions. Combustion is a chemical burning process and is
not a biological cellular function. Cellular respiration produces energy
through controlled biochemical reactions, not combustion. Therefore,
combustion is not a cellular function.
2. What are mitochondria primarily responsible for?
A. Protein synthesis
B. Energy production
C. DNA replication
D. Lipid storage
Correct Answer: B
,Rationale:
Mitochondria generate ATP through oxidative phosphorylation, making
them the energy-producing organelles of the cell. While they contain
their own DNA, their primary role is energy production. Cells with high
energy demands contain many mitochondria. Without mitochondria,
cells cannot sustain normal function.
3. Which of the following can cause edema?
A. Decreased capillary pressure
B. Increased lymphatic pressure
C. Decreased sodium retention
D. Increased plasma protein
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Edema occurs when fluid accumulates in interstitial spaces. Increased
lymphatic pressure impairs fluid drainage, leading to swelling.
Decreased plasma proteins and increased capillary pressure also cause
edema, but increased lymphatic pressure directly prevents fluid removal.
Therefore, lymphatic obstruction results in edema.
4. Which of the following best describes the result of cellular
reproduction (mitosis)?
A. Two haploid cells are produced
B. Four haploid cells are produced
C. Two diploid daughter cells are produced
D. One diploid and one haploid cell are produced
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Mitosis produces two identical diploid daughter cells. This process is
,responsible for growth and tissue repair. Haploid cells are produced only
through meiosis. Therefore, mitosis results in two diploid daughter cells.
5. What is an example of both hyperplasia and hypertrophy?
A. Muscle atrophy from immobilization
B. Uterine enlargement during pregnancy
C. Decrease in kidney size
D. Brain cell loss with aging
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
During pregnancy, the uterus enlarges due to both an increase in cell size
(hypertrophy) and an increase in cell number (hyperplasia). This is a
normal physiologic adaptation. Other options represent atrophy or
degeneration, not growth.
6. What hormone primarily regulates sodium balance in the body?
A. Insulin
B. Aldosterone
C. Cortisol
D. ADH
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Aldosterone acts on the kidneys to increase sodium reabsorption and
potassium excretion. This regulation directly controls extracellular fluid
volume and blood pressure. While ADH regulates water balance, sodium
balance is primarily controlled by aldosterone.
7. What is the alteration called if extracellular fluid volume is less than
normal?
,A. Hypertonic
B. Isotonic
C. Hypotonic
D. Acidotic
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
When extracellular fluid volume is decreased, the fluid becomes
hypotonic relative to intracellular fluid. This causes water to shift into
cells, leading to cellular swelling. Hypertonic conditions occur when
extracellular solute concentration is increased.
8. When in excess, what do buffers absorb?
A. Oxygen
B. Sodium
C. Hydrogen ions
D. Carbon dioxide
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Buffers maintain pH balance by absorbing excess hydrogen ions (H+).
This prevents dangerous changes in blood acidity. Buffer systems are
essential for acid-base homeostasis. Without buffers, small pH changes
would be life-threatening.
9. What is the process by which RNA directs the synthesis of
polypeptides?
A. Replication
B. Transcription
C. Translation
, D. Mitosis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Translation occurs at the ribosome, where messenger RNA (mRNA)
directs amino acid assembly into polypeptides. Transcription produces
RNA from DNA. Replication duplicates DNA. Therefore, translation is
protein synthesis.
10. What is the recurrence rate for autosomal dominant diseases?
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 100%
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Autosomal dominant disorders require only one defective gene from one
parent. Each child has a 50% chance of inheriting the disease. This
pattern appears in every generation. Therefore, recurrence risk is 50%.
11. What is the proportion of a population affected by a disease at a
specific point in time?
A. Incidence
B. Mortality rate
C. Prevalence
D. Morbidity
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
