APEA 3P Exam Predictor Exam Questions and
100% Correct Answers Best Predictive Exam 2025
1. A 45-year-old male patient presents with complaints of fatigue, weight loss,
and increased thirst. His blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg, and his fasting blood
glucose level is 180 mg/dL. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus
B) Hyperthyroidism
C) Hypertension
D) Acute Myocardial Infarction
Answer: A) Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus
Rationale:
The patient's symptoms of fatigue, weight loss, and increased thirst, along with
elevated fasting blood glucose levels, are classic signs of Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus.
Hypertension and hyperthyroidism could also be present, but they don't fully
account for the patient's symptoms.
2. Which of the following findings would most likely indicate acute pericarditis?
,A) Pleural friction rub
B) Decreased heart sounds
C) Sudden sharp chest pain that worsens with inspiration
D) Jugular venous distention
Answer: C) Sudden sharp chest pain that worsens with inspiration
Rationale:
Acute pericarditis is typically characterized by sharp, pleuritic chest pain that
worsens with inspiration or coughing. The pain may improve when the patient sits
up and leans forward. A pleural friction rub is often heard on auscultation, but the
pain pattern is key.
3. A 32-year-old female presents with a 3-day history of a red, swollen, and
painful right lower leg. The patient also reports feeling feverish. Upon
examination, the skin is warm to the touch, and there is localized erythema. What
is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT)
B) Cellulitis
C) Sprain
,D) Gout
Answer: B) Cellulitis
Rationale:
Cellulitis is a bacterial skin infection often caused by Streptococcus or
Staphylococcus species, resulting in red, swollen, and painful skin, sometimes
accompanied by fever. DVT could present with swelling and pain but is usually not
associated with fever or erythema.
4. A patient has a history of asthma and presents to the clinic with increased
shortness of breath, wheezing, and a decreased peak flow rate. The patient’s
pulse oximetry reading is 92%. Which of the following is the most appropriate
next step in management?
A) Administer oxygen and monitor the patient.
B) Administer a short-acting beta-agonist (SABA) inhaler.
C) Begin IV corticosteroids.
D) Initiate mechanical ventilation.
Answer: B) Administer a short-acting beta-agonist (SABA) inhaler.
Rationale:
, In patients with asthma exacerbations, the first-line treatment is a short-acting
beta-agonist (e.g., albuterol) to relieve bronchoconstriction. Administering oxygen
or corticosteroids may be appropriate later, but the immediate treatment is
aimed at improving airflow.
5. A 60-year-old male with a history of chronic alcohol use presents with
confusion, ataxia, and a wide-based gait. He is found to have a deficiency in
thiamine. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome
B) Multiple sclerosis
C) Parkinson’s disease
D) Alzheimer’s disease
Answer: A) Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome
Rationale:
Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome is a neurologic disorder caused by thiamine
deficiency, often seen in chronic alcohol users. It presents with confusion, ataxia,
and ophthalmoplegia, progressing to Korsakoff’s psychosis with memory deficits.
6. A 25-year-old female presents with a butterfly-shaped rash across her cheeks
and nose, along with photosensitivity and joint pain. The most likely diagnosis is:
A) Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)
100% Correct Answers Best Predictive Exam 2025
1. A 45-year-old male patient presents with complaints of fatigue, weight loss,
and increased thirst. His blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg, and his fasting blood
glucose level is 180 mg/dL. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus
B) Hyperthyroidism
C) Hypertension
D) Acute Myocardial Infarction
Answer: A) Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus
Rationale:
The patient's symptoms of fatigue, weight loss, and increased thirst, along with
elevated fasting blood glucose levels, are classic signs of Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus.
Hypertension and hyperthyroidism could also be present, but they don't fully
account for the patient's symptoms.
2. Which of the following findings would most likely indicate acute pericarditis?
,A) Pleural friction rub
B) Decreased heart sounds
C) Sudden sharp chest pain that worsens with inspiration
D) Jugular venous distention
Answer: C) Sudden sharp chest pain that worsens with inspiration
Rationale:
Acute pericarditis is typically characterized by sharp, pleuritic chest pain that
worsens with inspiration or coughing. The pain may improve when the patient sits
up and leans forward. A pleural friction rub is often heard on auscultation, but the
pain pattern is key.
3. A 32-year-old female presents with a 3-day history of a red, swollen, and
painful right lower leg. The patient also reports feeling feverish. Upon
examination, the skin is warm to the touch, and there is localized erythema. What
is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT)
B) Cellulitis
C) Sprain
,D) Gout
Answer: B) Cellulitis
Rationale:
Cellulitis is a bacterial skin infection often caused by Streptococcus or
Staphylococcus species, resulting in red, swollen, and painful skin, sometimes
accompanied by fever. DVT could present with swelling and pain but is usually not
associated with fever or erythema.
4. A patient has a history of asthma and presents to the clinic with increased
shortness of breath, wheezing, and a decreased peak flow rate. The patient’s
pulse oximetry reading is 92%. Which of the following is the most appropriate
next step in management?
A) Administer oxygen and monitor the patient.
B) Administer a short-acting beta-agonist (SABA) inhaler.
C) Begin IV corticosteroids.
D) Initiate mechanical ventilation.
Answer: B) Administer a short-acting beta-agonist (SABA) inhaler.
Rationale:
, In patients with asthma exacerbations, the first-line treatment is a short-acting
beta-agonist (e.g., albuterol) to relieve bronchoconstriction. Administering oxygen
or corticosteroids may be appropriate later, but the immediate treatment is
aimed at improving airflow.
5. A 60-year-old male with a history of chronic alcohol use presents with
confusion, ataxia, and a wide-based gait. He is found to have a deficiency in
thiamine. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome
B) Multiple sclerosis
C) Parkinson’s disease
D) Alzheimer’s disease
Answer: A) Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome
Rationale:
Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome is a neurologic disorder caused by thiamine
deficiency, often seen in chronic alcohol users. It presents with confusion, ataxia,
and ophthalmoplegia, progressing to Korsakoff’s psychosis with memory deficits.
6. A 25-year-old female presents with a butterfly-shaped rash across her cheeks
and nose, along with photosensitivity and joint pain. The most likely diagnosis is:
A) Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)
