ATI MED SURG IMMUNE & INFECTION, ATI MED SURG ONCOLOGY, ATI MED
SURG CARDIOVASCULAR NEWEST 2025/2026 ACTUAL EXAM COMPLETE 200+
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) |ALREADY
GRADED A+||BRAND NEW!!
Question 1
A nurse is caring for a male client who reports a thick urethral discharge. Which of the following
actions should the nurse take first?
A) Contact the client's sexual partners.
B) Obtain a urethral specimen for culture.
C) Prepare to administer penicillin to the client.
D) Obtain blood for a rapid plasma reagin test.
E) Instruct the client to increase fluid intake.
Correct Answer: B) Obtain a urethral specimen for culture.
Rationale: The nursing process dictates that assessment and data collection must occur
before intervention. Obtaining a urethral specimen for culture and sensitivity is necessary
to identify the specific causative organism (such as Neisseria gonorrhoeae or Chlamydia
trachomatis) to ensure the client receives the appropriate antibiotic therapy. Contacting
partners (Option A) and administering medication (Option C) are secondary to confirming
the diagnosis. While an RPR (Option D) screens for syphilis, it does not diagnose the cause
of urethral discharge.
Question 2
A home health nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving chemotherapy and has
neutropenia. Which of the following foods should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?
A) Soft-boiled eggs
B) Brie cheese made with unpasteurized milk
C) Cold deli-meat sandwiches
D) Baked chicken
E) Fresh-pressed raw vegetable juice
Correct Answer: D) Baked chicken.
Rationale: Neutropenic precautions (a low-microbial diet) are essential for clients with low
white blood cell counts to prevent infection. Baked chicken is thoroughly cooked, which
kills potential pathogens. Soft-boiled eggs (Option A) may contain salmonella if the yolk is
runny. Unpasteurized dairy (Option B), cold deli meats (Option C), and raw vegetables
(Option E) carry a high risk of harboring bacteria like Listeria or E. coli, which can be
fatal for an immunocompromised client.
Question 3
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a client who reports bilateral pain and swelling in
her finger joints, with stiffness in the morning. The nurse should recognize that an increase in
which of the following laboratory values can indicate rheumatoid arthritis?
, 2
A) Reticulocyte count
B) Rheumatoid factor
C) Direct Coombs' test
D) Platelet count
E) Serum amylase
Correct Answer: B) Rheumatoid factor.
Rationale: Rheumatoid factor (RF) is an antibody present in most clients who have
rheumatoid arthritis (RA). While not 100% specific, an elevated RF level, combined with
clinical symptoms like symmetrical joint pain and morning stiffness, supports the
diagnosis. Reticulocyte count (Option A) measures bone marrow activity; Direct Coombs'
(Option C) is for hemolytic anemia; Platelet count (Option D) relates to clotting; and
Serum amylase (Option E) is a marker for pancreatitis.
Question 4
A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a male client who is being treated for genital warts
(HPV). Which of the following statements indicates that the client understands how to prevent
the transmission of this sexually transmitted infection (STI)?
A) "I will bring my sexual partner for treatment."
B) "Now that I've had my first dose of medicine, I can resume sexual activity."
C) "Once I have been treated, I don't have to use condoms anymore."
D) "Once treatment is complete and I am free of symptoms, I don't have to return to the clinic."
E) "The warts are only contagious when I can see them."
Correct Answer: A) "I will bring my sexual partner for treatment."
Rationale: Genital warts are caused by the Human Papillomavirus (HPV). Partners should
be examined and treated because the virus can be transmitted even when no visible warts
are present. Condoms (Option C) reduce but do not eliminate the risk, as the virus can be
on skin not covered by the condom. HPV is a chronic virus; therefore, "completing
treatment" (Option D) does not mean the virus is gone. Asymptomatic shedding (Option E)
is a common route of transmission.
Question 5
A nurse is teaching a client who has AIDS about the transmission of Pneumocystis jiroveci
pneumonia (PCP). Which of the following pieces of information should the nurse include in the
teaching?
A) "PCP is sexually transmitted from person to person."
B) "You were most likely exposed to a contaminated surface such as a drinking glass."
C) "PCP results from an impaired immune system."
D) "You might have contracted PCP from a family pet."
E) "PCP is caused by a virus that is highly contagious to healthy adults."
Correct Answer: C) "PCP results from an impaired immune system."
, 3
Rationale: Pneumocystis jiroveci is an opportunistic fungal infection. It is found in the
environment and does not cause disease in individuals with a healthy immune system. In
clients with AIDS (specifically those with a CD4+ count below 200), the immune system is
too weak to suppress the fungus, leading to pneumonia. It is not considered an STI (Option
A), and it is not typically spread from pets (Option D) or surfaces (Option B).
Question 6
A nurse is caring for a client who has human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). Which of the
following types of isolation should the nurse implement to prevent the transmission of HIV to
healthcare workers?
A) Protective isolation
B) Droplet precautions
C) Standard precautions
D) Airborne precautions
E) Contact precautions
Correct Answer: C) Standard precautions.
Rationale: HIV is transmitted through blood, semen, vaginal secretions, and breast milk.
Standard precautions (using gloves and PPE when exposure to body fluids is possible) are
sufficient and mandatory for all clients to prevent transmission. Protective isolation
(Option A) is used to protect the client from the nurse. HIV is not spread by droplets
(Option B) or through the air (Option D).
Question 7
A nurse is teaching a client who has Raynaud's disease. Which of the following pieces of
information should the nurse include in the teaching?
A) Protect against the cold by wearing layers of clothing.
B) Begin an exercise program of 2-mile walks once per week.
C) Increase vitamin A in the diet.
D) Elevate the hands above heart level when resting.
E) Use ice packs to reduce finger swelling during an attack.
Correct Answer: A) Protect against the cold by wearing layers of clothing.
Rationale: Raynaud's disease involves vasospasm of the small arteries in the hands and feet,
typically triggered by cold or stress. Wearing layers helps maintain core and extremity
temperature, preventing vasospasm. Walking once a week (Option B) is insufficient
exercise. Elevating hands (Option D) might decrease arterial flow, which is already
compromised. Ice packs (Option E) would trigger or worsen an attack.
Question 8
A nurse is teaching a client who has HIV about how the virus is transmitted. Which of the
following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
A) "HIV can be transmitted as soon as a person develops manifestations."
, 4
B) "HIV can be transmitted to anyone who has had contact with infected blood."
C) "HIV is transmitted through the respiratory route via droplets."
D) "HIV is transmitted only during the active phase of the virus."
E) "HIV can be transmitted through sweat and tears."
Correct Answer: B) "HIV can be transmitted to anyone who has had contact with infected
blood."
Rationale: HIV is present in blood and other body fluids (semen, vaginal secretions).
Contact with infected blood via needle sticks, transfusions, or open wounds is a primary
transmission route. HIV can be transmitted even if the person is asymptomatic (Option A)
or in a "latent" phase. It is not airborne or droplet-spread (Option C). Sweat and tears
(Option E) do not contain enough of the virus to be considered infectious.
Question 9
A nurse is caring for a client who has HIV. The client asks the nurse, "Should I tell my partner
that I am HIV positive?" Which of the following statements should the nurse provide?
A) "That is your decision alone."
B) "I would if I were you."
C) "It sounds like you are unsure what to say to your partner."
D) "Your provider is required by law to notify your partner."
E) "You are legally required to notify the police first."
Correct Answer: C) "It sounds like you are unsure what to say to your partner."
Rationale: This is a therapeutic communication technique (reflection/paraphrasing). It
encourages the client to explore their feelings and concerns without the nurse being
judgmental or giving unsolicited advice (Options A & B). While health departments may
have partner notification programs, the nurse's first responsibility is to support the client's
psychosocial process.
Question 10
A nurse is teaching a client about preventing the transmission of hepatitis A. The nurse should
identify that hepatitis A is transmitted by which of the following routes?
A) Maternal-fetal
B) Fecal-oral contamination
C) Genital sexual contact
D) Blood to blood
E) Airborne particles
Correct Answer: B) Fecal-oral contamination.
Rationale: Hepatitis A is primarily transmitted through the ingestion of contaminated food
or water or through close personal contact with an infected person (fecal-oral route).
Hepatitis B and C are primarily blood-borne (Option D) and sexually transmitted (Option
C). Hepatitis A does not have a chronic carrier state and is not airborne (Option E).
SURG CARDIOVASCULAR NEWEST 2025/2026 ACTUAL EXAM COMPLETE 200+
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) |ALREADY
GRADED A+||BRAND NEW!!
Question 1
A nurse is caring for a male client who reports a thick urethral discharge. Which of the following
actions should the nurse take first?
A) Contact the client's sexual partners.
B) Obtain a urethral specimen for culture.
C) Prepare to administer penicillin to the client.
D) Obtain blood for a rapid plasma reagin test.
E) Instruct the client to increase fluid intake.
Correct Answer: B) Obtain a urethral specimen for culture.
Rationale: The nursing process dictates that assessment and data collection must occur
before intervention. Obtaining a urethral specimen for culture and sensitivity is necessary
to identify the specific causative organism (such as Neisseria gonorrhoeae or Chlamydia
trachomatis) to ensure the client receives the appropriate antibiotic therapy. Contacting
partners (Option A) and administering medication (Option C) are secondary to confirming
the diagnosis. While an RPR (Option D) screens for syphilis, it does not diagnose the cause
of urethral discharge.
Question 2
A home health nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving chemotherapy and has
neutropenia. Which of the following foods should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?
A) Soft-boiled eggs
B) Brie cheese made with unpasteurized milk
C) Cold deli-meat sandwiches
D) Baked chicken
E) Fresh-pressed raw vegetable juice
Correct Answer: D) Baked chicken.
Rationale: Neutropenic precautions (a low-microbial diet) are essential for clients with low
white blood cell counts to prevent infection. Baked chicken is thoroughly cooked, which
kills potential pathogens. Soft-boiled eggs (Option A) may contain salmonella if the yolk is
runny. Unpasteurized dairy (Option B), cold deli meats (Option C), and raw vegetables
(Option E) carry a high risk of harboring bacteria like Listeria or E. coli, which can be
fatal for an immunocompromised client.
Question 3
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a client who reports bilateral pain and swelling in
her finger joints, with stiffness in the morning. The nurse should recognize that an increase in
which of the following laboratory values can indicate rheumatoid arthritis?
, 2
A) Reticulocyte count
B) Rheumatoid factor
C) Direct Coombs' test
D) Platelet count
E) Serum amylase
Correct Answer: B) Rheumatoid factor.
Rationale: Rheumatoid factor (RF) is an antibody present in most clients who have
rheumatoid arthritis (RA). While not 100% specific, an elevated RF level, combined with
clinical symptoms like symmetrical joint pain and morning stiffness, supports the
diagnosis. Reticulocyte count (Option A) measures bone marrow activity; Direct Coombs'
(Option C) is for hemolytic anemia; Platelet count (Option D) relates to clotting; and
Serum amylase (Option E) is a marker for pancreatitis.
Question 4
A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a male client who is being treated for genital warts
(HPV). Which of the following statements indicates that the client understands how to prevent
the transmission of this sexually transmitted infection (STI)?
A) "I will bring my sexual partner for treatment."
B) "Now that I've had my first dose of medicine, I can resume sexual activity."
C) "Once I have been treated, I don't have to use condoms anymore."
D) "Once treatment is complete and I am free of symptoms, I don't have to return to the clinic."
E) "The warts are only contagious when I can see them."
Correct Answer: A) "I will bring my sexual partner for treatment."
Rationale: Genital warts are caused by the Human Papillomavirus (HPV). Partners should
be examined and treated because the virus can be transmitted even when no visible warts
are present. Condoms (Option C) reduce but do not eliminate the risk, as the virus can be
on skin not covered by the condom. HPV is a chronic virus; therefore, "completing
treatment" (Option D) does not mean the virus is gone. Asymptomatic shedding (Option E)
is a common route of transmission.
Question 5
A nurse is teaching a client who has AIDS about the transmission of Pneumocystis jiroveci
pneumonia (PCP). Which of the following pieces of information should the nurse include in the
teaching?
A) "PCP is sexually transmitted from person to person."
B) "You were most likely exposed to a contaminated surface such as a drinking glass."
C) "PCP results from an impaired immune system."
D) "You might have contracted PCP from a family pet."
E) "PCP is caused by a virus that is highly contagious to healthy adults."
Correct Answer: C) "PCP results from an impaired immune system."
, 3
Rationale: Pneumocystis jiroveci is an opportunistic fungal infection. It is found in the
environment and does not cause disease in individuals with a healthy immune system. In
clients with AIDS (specifically those with a CD4+ count below 200), the immune system is
too weak to suppress the fungus, leading to pneumonia. It is not considered an STI (Option
A), and it is not typically spread from pets (Option D) or surfaces (Option B).
Question 6
A nurse is caring for a client who has human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). Which of the
following types of isolation should the nurse implement to prevent the transmission of HIV to
healthcare workers?
A) Protective isolation
B) Droplet precautions
C) Standard precautions
D) Airborne precautions
E) Contact precautions
Correct Answer: C) Standard precautions.
Rationale: HIV is transmitted through blood, semen, vaginal secretions, and breast milk.
Standard precautions (using gloves and PPE when exposure to body fluids is possible) are
sufficient and mandatory for all clients to prevent transmission. Protective isolation
(Option A) is used to protect the client from the nurse. HIV is not spread by droplets
(Option B) or through the air (Option D).
Question 7
A nurse is teaching a client who has Raynaud's disease. Which of the following pieces of
information should the nurse include in the teaching?
A) Protect against the cold by wearing layers of clothing.
B) Begin an exercise program of 2-mile walks once per week.
C) Increase vitamin A in the diet.
D) Elevate the hands above heart level when resting.
E) Use ice packs to reduce finger swelling during an attack.
Correct Answer: A) Protect against the cold by wearing layers of clothing.
Rationale: Raynaud's disease involves vasospasm of the small arteries in the hands and feet,
typically triggered by cold or stress. Wearing layers helps maintain core and extremity
temperature, preventing vasospasm. Walking once a week (Option B) is insufficient
exercise. Elevating hands (Option D) might decrease arterial flow, which is already
compromised. Ice packs (Option E) would trigger or worsen an attack.
Question 8
A nurse is teaching a client who has HIV about how the virus is transmitted. Which of the
following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
A) "HIV can be transmitted as soon as a person develops manifestations."
, 4
B) "HIV can be transmitted to anyone who has had contact with infected blood."
C) "HIV is transmitted through the respiratory route via droplets."
D) "HIV is transmitted only during the active phase of the virus."
E) "HIV can be transmitted through sweat and tears."
Correct Answer: B) "HIV can be transmitted to anyone who has had contact with infected
blood."
Rationale: HIV is present in blood and other body fluids (semen, vaginal secretions).
Contact with infected blood via needle sticks, transfusions, or open wounds is a primary
transmission route. HIV can be transmitted even if the person is asymptomatic (Option A)
or in a "latent" phase. It is not airborne or droplet-spread (Option C). Sweat and tears
(Option E) do not contain enough of the virus to be considered infectious.
Question 9
A nurse is caring for a client who has HIV. The client asks the nurse, "Should I tell my partner
that I am HIV positive?" Which of the following statements should the nurse provide?
A) "That is your decision alone."
B) "I would if I were you."
C) "It sounds like you are unsure what to say to your partner."
D) "Your provider is required by law to notify your partner."
E) "You are legally required to notify the police first."
Correct Answer: C) "It sounds like you are unsure what to say to your partner."
Rationale: This is a therapeutic communication technique (reflection/paraphrasing). It
encourages the client to explore their feelings and concerns without the nurse being
judgmental or giving unsolicited advice (Options A & B). While health departments may
have partner notification programs, the nurse's first responsibility is to support the client's
psychosocial process.
Question 10
A nurse is teaching a client about preventing the transmission of hepatitis A. The nurse should
identify that hepatitis A is transmitted by which of the following routes?
A) Maternal-fetal
B) Fecal-oral contamination
C) Genital sexual contact
D) Blood to blood
E) Airborne particles
Correct Answer: B) Fecal-oral contamination.
Rationale: Hepatitis A is primarily transmitted through the ingestion of contaminated food
or water or through close personal contact with an infected person (fecal-oral route).
Hepatitis B and C are primarily blood-borne (Option D) and sexually transmitted (Option
C). Hepatitis A does not have a chronic carrier state and is not airborne (Option E).
