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NURS 2042 (PHARM 3) EXAM 1 REVIEW STUDY 2026 MULTICHOICE ANSWERED EXAM QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED RATIONALES

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NURS 2042 (PHARM 3) EXAM 1 REVIEW STUDY 2026 MULTICHOICE ANSWERED EXAM QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED RATIONALES

Institution
NURS 2042
Course
NURS 2042

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ESTUDYR



NURS 2042 (PHARM 3) EXAM 1 REVIEW STUDY
2026 MULTICHOICE ANSWERED EXAM QUESTIONS
WITH DETAILED RATIONALES

1. A patient is receiving a medication known to cause cardiotoxicity and visual disturbances.
Which nursing assessments are the PRIORITY? (Select all that apply.)

A. Asking the patient if tinnitus is present
B. Monitoring the patient’s heart rhythm
C. Monitoring for symptoms of vertigo
D. Assessing for visual abnormalities
E. Checking the patient’s potassium levels regularly

Correct Answers: B, D, E

Rationale:
Medications such as digoxin require close monitoring of cardiac rhythm, vision changes, and
electrolytes (especially potassium) due to the risk of dysrhythmias and toxicity. Tinnitus and
vertigo are not primary indicators for cardiotoxic drugs.



2. Which antitussive has BOTH antihistamine and cough-suppressant properties?

A. Guaifenesin (Robitussin)
B. Codeine
C. Dextromethorphan (Robitussin DM)
D. Diphenhydramine (Diphen)

Correct Answer: D. Diphenhydramine

Rationale:
Diphenhydramine is a first-generation antihistamine with antitussive and sedating properties,
making it effective for allergy-related cough.



3. Which class of medications directly suppresses the cough center in the brain?

A. Expectorants
B. Bronchodilators

,ESTUDYR


C. Mucolytic agents
D. Antitussives

Correct Answer: D. Antitussives

Rationale:
Antitussives act centrally to suppress the medullary cough center, reducing the cough reflex.



4. Which principle is MOST directly involved in the teach-back method?

A. Considering the patient’s learning style
B. Considering educational level
C. Organizing teaching sessions to verify understanding
D. Motivating the individual to learn

Correct Answer: C. Organizing teaching sessions

Rationale:
Teach-back ensures learning by having the patient repeat information in their own words,
verifying comprehension.



5. Which ophthalmic agent is considered the INITIAL drug of choice for open-angle
glaucoma?

A. Prostaglandins
B. Sympathomimetic agents
C. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
D. Beta-adrenergic blocking agents

Correct Answer: D. Beta-adrenergic blocking agents

Rationale:
Beta blockers (e.g., timolol) reduce aqueous humor production, lowering intraocular pressure.



6. The nurse discusses nonpharmacologic strategies for peptic ulcer disease. Which
interventions should be included? (Select all that apply.)

A. Eat smaller, more frequent meals
B. Sit upright when eating
C. Limit fluid intake to mealtimes

, ESTUDYR


D. Avoid lying down for at least 2 hours after meals
E. Use NSAIDs instead of acetaminophen

Correct Answers: A, B, D

Rationale:
These interventions reduce gastric acid exposure and reflux. NSAIDs worsen ulcers and should
be avoided.



7. In addition to a proton pump inhibitor, which medication class is used to eradicate
Helicobacter pylori?

A. Antiinflammatory agents
B. Prostaglandin inhibitors
C. Therapeutic nutrients
D. Antibiotics

Correct Answer: D. Antibiotics

Rationale:
H. pylori requires combination antibiotic therapy plus acid suppression for eradication.



8. A patient has taken high-dose omeprazole for over one year. Which complication should
the nurse monitor for?

A. Constipation
B. Hepatotoxicity
C. Hip, wrist, or spine fractures
D. Hypomagnesemia

Correct Answer: C. Hip, wrist, or spine fractures

Rationale:
Long-term PPI use decreases calcium absorption, increasing fracture risk.



9. Which common adverse effect is associated with famotidine?

A. Anorexia
B. Jaundice

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