HESI EXIT RN EXAM V1-V7 300+
QUESTIONS WITH ACTUAL ANSWERS
2026 ALREADY VERIFIED BY EXPERTS
2. Before preparing a client for the first surgical case of the day, a part-time scrub nurse
asks the circulating nurse if a 3 minute surgical hand scrub is adequate preparation
for this client. Which response should the circulating nurse provide?
• Direct the nurse to continue the surgical hand scrub for a 5 minute duration
3. Which breakfast selection indicates that the client understands the nurse’s
instructions about the dietary management of osteoporosis?
• Bagel with jelly and skim milk
4. The charge nurse of a critical care unit is informed at the beginning of the shift that
less than the optimal number of registered nurses will be working that shift. In
planning assignments, which client should receive the most care hours by a
registered nurse (RN)?
• An 82-year-old client with Alzheimer’s disease newly-fractures femur who has a
Foley catheter and soft wrist restrains applied
5. A mother brings her 6-year-old child, who has just stepped on a rusty nail, to the
pediatrician’s office. Upon inspection, the nurse notes that the nail went through the
shoe and pierced the bottom of the child’s foot. Which action should the nurse
implement first?
• Cleanse the foot with soap and water and apply an antibiotic ointment •
Provide teaching about the need for a tetanus booster within the next 72 hours.
• have the mother check the child's temperature q4h for the next 24 hours
• transfer the child to the emergency department to receive a gamma globulin
injection
6. The mother of an adolescent tells the clinic nurse, “My son has athlete’s foot, I have
been applying triple antibiotic ointment for two days, but there has been no
improvement.” What instruction should the nurse provide?
• Stop using the ointment and encourage complete drying of the feet and wearing
clean socks.
7. A 26-year-old female client is admitted to the hospital for treatment of a simple
goiter, and levothyroxine sodium (Synthroid) is prescribed. Which symptoms
indicate to the nurse that the prescribed dosage is too high for this client? The client
experiences
• Bradycardia and constipation
• Lethargy and lack of appetite
• Muscle cramping and dry, flushed skin
1
, • Palpitations and shortness of breath
8. A client with a history of heart failure presents to the clinic with a nausea, vomiting,
yellow vision and palpitations. Which finding is most important for the nurse to
assess to the client?
• Obtain a list of medications taken for cardiac history
9. The healthcare provider prescribes an IV solution of isoproterenol (Isuprel) 1 mg in
250 ml of D5W at 300 mcg/hour. The nurse should program the infusion pump to
deliver how many ml/hour? (Enter numeric value only.)
• 75
• Rationale: Convert mg to mcg and use the formula D/H x Q. 300 mcg/hour /
1,000 mcg x 250 ml = 3/1 x 25 = 75 ml/hour
10. The pathophysiological mechanism are responsible for ascites related to liver
failure?
(Select all that apply)
• Fluid shifts from intravascular to interstitial area due to decreased serum protein
• Increased hydrostatic pressure in portal circulation increases fluid shifts into abdomen
• Increased circulating aldosterone levels that increase sodium and water retention
11. The nurse is auscultating a client’s heart sounds. Which description should the nurse
use to document this sound? (Please listen to the audio first to select the option that
applies)
• Murmur
• Rationale: A murmur is auscultated as a swishing sound that is associated with the
blood turbulence created by the heart or valvular defect.
12. The healthcare provider prescribes celtazidime (Fortax) 35 mg every 8 hours IM for
an infant. The 500 mg vial is labeled with the instruction to add 5.3 ml diluent to
provide a concentration of 100 mg/ml. How many ml should the nurse administered
for each dose? (Enter numeric value only. If rounding is required, round to the
nearest tenth)
• 0.4
• rationale: 35mg/100mg x 1 = 0.35 = 0.4 ml
13. The nurse notes that a client has been receiving hydromorphone (Dilaudid) every six
hours for four days. What assessment is most important for the nurse to complete?
• Auscultate the client's bowel sounds
• Observe for edema around the ankles
• Measure the client’s capillary glucose level
• Count the apical and radial pulses simultaneously
• Rationale: hydromorphone is a potent opioid analgesic that slows peristalsis and
frequently causes constipation, so it is most important to Auscultate the client's
bowel sounds
, 14. A female client is admitted with end stage pulmonary disease is alert, oriented, and
complaining of shortness of breath. The client tells the nurse that she wants “no
heroic measures” taken if she stops breathing, and she asks the nurse to document
this in her medical record. What action should the nurse implement?
• Ask the client to discuss “do not resuscitate” with her healthcare provider
15. A client is receiving a full strength continuous enteral tube feeding at 50 ml/hour and
has developed diarrhea. The client has a new prescription to change the feeding to
half strength. What intervention should the nurse implement?
• Add equal amounts of water and feeding to a feeding bag and infuse at 50ml/hour
16. A female client reports that her hair is becoming coarse and breaking off, that the
outer part of her eyebrows have disappeared, and that her eyes are all puffy. Which
follow-up question is best for the nurse to ask?
• Have you noticed any changes in your fingernails?
• Rationale: The pattern of reported manifestations is suggestive of hypothyroidism
17. After a third hospitalization 6 months ago, a client is admitted to the hospital with
ascites and malnutrition. The client is drowsy but responding to verbal stimuli and
reports recently spitting up blood. What assessment finding warrants immediate
intervention by the nurse?
• Capillary refill of 8 seconds
• bruises on arms and legs
• round and tight abdomen
• pitting edema in lower legs
18. After the nurse witnesses a preoperative client sign the surgical consent form, the
nurse signs the form as a witness. What are the legal implications of the nurse’s
signature on the client’s surgical consent form? (Select all that apply)
• The client voluntarily grants permission for the procedure to be done
• The client is competent to sign the consent without impairment of judgment
• The client understands the risks and benefits associated with the procedure
19. Following surgery, a male client with antisocial personality disorder frequently
requests that a specific nurse be assigned to his care and is belligerent when another
nurse is assigned. What action should the charge nurse implement?
• Advise the client that assignments are not based on clients requests
20. A client with cervical cancer is hospitalized for insertion of a sealed internal cervical
radiation implant. While providing care, the nurse finds the radiation implant in the
bed.
What action should the nurse take?
• Place the implant in a lead container using long-handled forceps
21. The client with which type of wound is most likely to need immediate intervention
by the nurse?
• Laceration
• Abrasion
• Contusion
• Ulceration
3
, • Rationale: A laceration is a wound that is produced by the tearing of soft body tissue. This type
of wound is often irregular and jagged. A laceration wound is often contaminated with bacteria
and debris from whatever object caused the cut.
22. The nurse is planning care for a client admitted with a diagnosis of
pheochromocytoma. Which intervention has the highest priority for inclusion in this
client’s plan of care?
• Monitor blood pressure frequently
• Rationale: A pheochromocytoma is a rare, catecholamine-secreting tumor that may precipitate
life-threatening hypertension. The tumor is malignant in 10% of cases but may be cured
completely by surgical removal. Although pheochromocytoma has classically been associated
with 3 syndromes—von Hippel-Lindau (VHL) syndrome, multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2
(MEN 2), and neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1)—there are now 10 genes that have been identified
as sites of mutations leading to pheochromocytoma.
23. When caring for a client who has acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), the
nurse elevates the head of the bed 30 degrees. What is the reason for this
intervention?
• To reduce abdominal pressure on the diaphragm
• to promote retraction of the intercostal accessory muscle of respiration
• to promote bronchodilation and effective airway clearance
• to decrease pressure on the medullary center which stimulates breathing
• Rationale: a semi-sitting position is the best position for matching ventilation and perfusion and
for decreasing abdominal pressure on the diaphragm, so that the client can maximize breathing.
24. When assessing a mildly obese 35-year-old female client, the nurse is unable to
locate the gallbladder when palpating below the liver margin at the lateral border of
the rectus abdominal muscle. What is the most likely explanation for failure to locate
the gallbladder by palpation?
• The client is too obese
• Palpating in the wrong abdominal quadrant
• Deeper palpation technique is needed
• The gallbladder is normal
• Rationale: a normal healthy gallbladder is not palpable
25. A woman with an anxiety disorder calls her obstetrician’s office and tells the nurse
of increased anxiety since the normal vaginal delivery of her son three weeks ago.
Since she is breastfeeding, she stopped taking her antianxiety medications, but thinks
she may need to start taking them again because of her increased anxiety. What
response is best for the nurse to provide this woman?
• describe the transmission of drugs to the infant through breast milk
• encourage her to use stress relieving alternatives, such as deep breathing exercises
• Inform her that some antianxiety medications are safe to take while
breastfeeding
• Explain that anxiety is a normal response for the mother of a 3-week-old.
• Rationale: there are several antianxiety medications that are not contraindicated
for breastfeeding mothers.
QUESTIONS WITH ACTUAL ANSWERS
2026 ALREADY VERIFIED BY EXPERTS
2. Before preparing a client for the first surgical case of the day, a part-time scrub nurse
asks the circulating nurse if a 3 minute surgical hand scrub is adequate preparation
for this client. Which response should the circulating nurse provide?
• Direct the nurse to continue the surgical hand scrub for a 5 minute duration
3. Which breakfast selection indicates that the client understands the nurse’s
instructions about the dietary management of osteoporosis?
• Bagel with jelly and skim milk
4. The charge nurse of a critical care unit is informed at the beginning of the shift that
less than the optimal number of registered nurses will be working that shift. In
planning assignments, which client should receive the most care hours by a
registered nurse (RN)?
• An 82-year-old client with Alzheimer’s disease newly-fractures femur who has a
Foley catheter and soft wrist restrains applied
5. A mother brings her 6-year-old child, who has just stepped on a rusty nail, to the
pediatrician’s office. Upon inspection, the nurse notes that the nail went through the
shoe and pierced the bottom of the child’s foot. Which action should the nurse
implement first?
• Cleanse the foot with soap and water and apply an antibiotic ointment •
Provide teaching about the need for a tetanus booster within the next 72 hours.
• have the mother check the child's temperature q4h for the next 24 hours
• transfer the child to the emergency department to receive a gamma globulin
injection
6. The mother of an adolescent tells the clinic nurse, “My son has athlete’s foot, I have
been applying triple antibiotic ointment for two days, but there has been no
improvement.” What instruction should the nurse provide?
• Stop using the ointment and encourage complete drying of the feet and wearing
clean socks.
7. A 26-year-old female client is admitted to the hospital for treatment of a simple
goiter, and levothyroxine sodium (Synthroid) is prescribed. Which symptoms
indicate to the nurse that the prescribed dosage is too high for this client? The client
experiences
• Bradycardia and constipation
• Lethargy and lack of appetite
• Muscle cramping and dry, flushed skin
1
, • Palpitations and shortness of breath
8. A client with a history of heart failure presents to the clinic with a nausea, vomiting,
yellow vision and palpitations. Which finding is most important for the nurse to
assess to the client?
• Obtain a list of medications taken for cardiac history
9. The healthcare provider prescribes an IV solution of isoproterenol (Isuprel) 1 mg in
250 ml of D5W at 300 mcg/hour. The nurse should program the infusion pump to
deliver how many ml/hour? (Enter numeric value only.)
• 75
• Rationale: Convert mg to mcg and use the formula D/H x Q. 300 mcg/hour /
1,000 mcg x 250 ml = 3/1 x 25 = 75 ml/hour
10. The pathophysiological mechanism are responsible for ascites related to liver
failure?
(Select all that apply)
• Fluid shifts from intravascular to interstitial area due to decreased serum protein
• Increased hydrostatic pressure in portal circulation increases fluid shifts into abdomen
• Increased circulating aldosterone levels that increase sodium and water retention
11. The nurse is auscultating a client’s heart sounds. Which description should the nurse
use to document this sound? (Please listen to the audio first to select the option that
applies)
• Murmur
• Rationale: A murmur is auscultated as a swishing sound that is associated with the
blood turbulence created by the heart or valvular defect.
12. The healthcare provider prescribes celtazidime (Fortax) 35 mg every 8 hours IM for
an infant. The 500 mg vial is labeled with the instruction to add 5.3 ml diluent to
provide a concentration of 100 mg/ml. How many ml should the nurse administered
for each dose? (Enter numeric value only. If rounding is required, round to the
nearest tenth)
• 0.4
• rationale: 35mg/100mg x 1 = 0.35 = 0.4 ml
13. The nurse notes that a client has been receiving hydromorphone (Dilaudid) every six
hours for four days. What assessment is most important for the nurse to complete?
• Auscultate the client's bowel sounds
• Observe for edema around the ankles
• Measure the client’s capillary glucose level
• Count the apical and radial pulses simultaneously
• Rationale: hydromorphone is a potent opioid analgesic that slows peristalsis and
frequently causes constipation, so it is most important to Auscultate the client's
bowel sounds
, 14. A female client is admitted with end stage pulmonary disease is alert, oriented, and
complaining of shortness of breath. The client tells the nurse that she wants “no
heroic measures” taken if she stops breathing, and she asks the nurse to document
this in her medical record. What action should the nurse implement?
• Ask the client to discuss “do not resuscitate” with her healthcare provider
15. A client is receiving a full strength continuous enteral tube feeding at 50 ml/hour and
has developed diarrhea. The client has a new prescription to change the feeding to
half strength. What intervention should the nurse implement?
• Add equal amounts of water and feeding to a feeding bag and infuse at 50ml/hour
16. A female client reports that her hair is becoming coarse and breaking off, that the
outer part of her eyebrows have disappeared, and that her eyes are all puffy. Which
follow-up question is best for the nurse to ask?
• Have you noticed any changes in your fingernails?
• Rationale: The pattern of reported manifestations is suggestive of hypothyroidism
17. After a third hospitalization 6 months ago, a client is admitted to the hospital with
ascites and malnutrition. The client is drowsy but responding to verbal stimuli and
reports recently spitting up blood. What assessment finding warrants immediate
intervention by the nurse?
• Capillary refill of 8 seconds
• bruises on arms and legs
• round and tight abdomen
• pitting edema in lower legs
18. After the nurse witnesses a preoperative client sign the surgical consent form, the
nurse signs the form as a witness. What are the legal implications of the nurse’s
signature on the client’s surgical consent form? (Select all that apply)
• The client voluntarily grants permission for the procedure to be done
• The client is competent to sign the consent without impairment of judgment
• The client understands the risks and benefits associated with the procedure
19. Following surgery, a male client with antisocial personality disorder frequently
requests that a specific nurse be assigned to his care and is belligerent when another
nurse is assigned. What action should the charge nurse implement?
• Advise the client that assignments are not based on clients requests
20. A client with cervical cancer is hospitalized for insertion of a sealed internal cervical
radiation implant. While providing care, the nurse finds the radiation implant in the
bed.
What action should the nurse take?
• Place the implant in a lead container using long-handled forceps
21. The client with which type of wound is most likely to need immediate intervention
by the nurse?
• Laceration
• Abrasion
• Contusion
• Ulceration
3
, • Rationale: A laceration is a wound that is produced by the tearing of soft body tissue. This type
of wound is often irregular and jagged. A laceration wound is often contaminated with bacteria
and debris from whatever object caused the cut.
22. The nurse is planning care for a client admitted with a diagnosis of
pheochromocytoma. Which intervention has the highest priority for inclusion in this
client’s plan of care?
• Monitor blood pressure frequently
• Rationale: A pheochromocytoma is a rare, catecholamine-secreting tumor that may precipitate
life-threatening hypertension. The tumor is malignant in 10% of cases but may be cured
completely by surgical removal. Although pheochromocytoma has classically been associated
with 3 syndromes—von Hippel-Lindau (VHL) syndrome, multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2
(MEN 2), and neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1)—there are now 10 genes that have been identified
as sites of mutations leading to pheochromocytoma.
23. When caring for a client who has acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), the
nurse elevates the head of the bed 30 degrees. What is the reason for this
intervention?
• To reduce abdominal pressure on the diaphragm
• to promote retraction of the intercostal accessory muscle of respiration
• to promote bronchodilation and effective airway clearance
• to decrease pressure on the medullary center which stimulates breathing
• Rationale: a semi-sitting position is the best position for matching ventilation and perfusion and
for decreasing abdominal pressure on the diaphragm, so that the client can maximize breathing.
24. When assessing a mildly obese 35-year-old female client, the nurse is unable to
locate the gallbladder when palpating below the liver margin at the lateral border of
the rectus abdominal muscle. What is the most likely explanation for failure to locate
the gallbladder by palpation?
• The client is too obese
• Palpating in the wrong abdominal quadrant
• Deeper palpation technique is needed
• The gallbladder is normal
• Rationale: a normal healthy gallbladder is not palpable
25. A woman with an anxiety disorder calls her obstetrician’s office and tells the nurse
of increased anxiety since the normal vaginal delivery of her son three weeks ago.
Since she is breastfeeding, she stopped taking her antianxiety medications, but thinks
she may need to start taking them again because of her increased anxiety. What
response is best for the nurse to provide this woman?
• describe the transmission of drugs to the infant through breast milk
• encourage her to use stress relieving alternatives, such as deep breathing exercises
• Inform her that some antianxiety medications are safe to take while
breastfeeding
• Explain that anxiety is a normal response for the mother of a 3-week-old.
• Rationale: there are several antianxiety medications that are not contraindicated
for breastfeeding mothers.
