ATI MED SURG IMMUNE & INFECTION, ATI MED SURG ONCOLOGY, ATI MED
SURG CARDIOVASCULAR NEWEST 2025 ACTUAL EXAM COMPLETE 200
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) |ALREADY
GRADED A+||BRAND NEW!!
Question 1
A nurse is completing an assessment on a client. Which of the following findings should the
nurse identify as a risk factor for coronary artery disease? (Select all that apply.)
A) Hypothyroidism
B) Hypertension
C) Diabetes mellitus
D) Hyperlipidemia
E) Tobacco smoking
Correct Answer: B, C, D, E) Hypertension, Diabetes mellitus, Hyperlipidemia, Tobacco
smoking
Rationale: Coronary artery disease (CAD) is caused by plaque buildup in the wall of the
arteries that supply blood to the heart. Hypertension is a major risk factor because high
blood pressure causes chronic shear stress on the arterial walls, leading to endothelial
injury. Diabetes mellitus accelerates the process of atherosclerosis due to hyperglycemia
causing oxidative stress and inflammation. Hyperlipidemia (high levels of LDL cholesterol)
provides the raw material for plaque formation within the vessel walls. Tobacco smoking is
a critical modifiable risk factor as it induces vasoconstriction and damages the endothelium
via carbon monoxide and nicotine. Hypothyroidism is not typically classified as a primary
risk factor for CAD, though it can contribute to secondary hyperlipidemia.
Question 2
A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving a unit of whole blood. Which of the following
findings should the nurse identify as a manifestation of a hemolytic transfusion reaction?
A) Bradycardia
B) Paresthesia
C) Hypertension
D) Low back pain
E) Polyuria
Correct Answer: D) Low back pain
Rationale: An acute hemolytic transfusion reaction occurs when the recipient's antibodies
destroy the donor's red blood cells. This destruction releases hemoglobin into the plasma,
which can travel to the kidneys and cause acute renal failure. The hallmark symptom of
this reaction is low back pain (lumbar pain) caused by the inflammatory response and the
filtration of hemoglobin through the kidneys. Other signs include fever, chills, hypotension,
and tachypnea. Bradycardia and hypertension are not typical; instead, the client usually
becomes tachycardic and hypotensive (shock). Paresthesia is more common in citrate
toxicity or hypocalcemia related to massive transfusions.
, 2
Question 3
A nurse is caring for a client who has scurvy. Which of the following vitamin deficiencies should
the nurse identify as the cause of this disease?
A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin B3
C) Vitamin C
D) Vitamin D
E) Vitamin K
Correct Answer: C) Vitamin C
Rationale: Scurvy is a clinical syndrome resulting from a deficiency of Vitamin C (ascorbic
acid). Vitamin C is essential for the synthesis of collagen, which provides structural
integrity to blood vessels, skin, and connective tissue. Without it, clients experience
capillary fragility (leading to bruising and bleeding gums), poor wound healing, and joint
pain. Vitamin A deficiency causes night blindness; Vitamin B3 (niacin) deficiency causes
pellagra; Vitamin D deficiency causes rickets or osteomalacia; and Vitamin K deficiency
leads to impaired blood clotting.
Question 4
A nurse is caring for a client who has an upper gastrointestinal bleed and a hematocrit of 24%.
Prior to initiating a transfusion of packed red blood cells (RBCs), which of the following actions
should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.)
A) Assess and document the client's vital signs
B) Restart the IV with a 22-gauge needle
C) Verify with another nurse the blood type and Rh of the packed RBCs
D) Hang a bag of lactated Ringer's IV solution
E) Change IV tubing to a set that has a filter
Correct Answer: A, C, E) Assess and document the client's vital signs; Verify with another
nurse the blood type and Rh of the packed RBCs; Change IV tubing to a set that has a
filter
Rationale: Assessing vital signs establishes a baseline to monitor for transfusion reactions.
Verification of blood products must be done by two licensed nurses to ensure the donor and
recipient match, preventing fatal hemolytic reactions. Blood must be administered through
a filter to catch any small clots or debris. A 22-gauge needle is generally too small and can
cause hemolysis; an 18- or 20-gauge is preferred. Lactated Ringer’s should never be used
with blood because the calcium can cause clotting; only 0.9% sodium chloride (normal
saline) is compatible.
Question 5
A nurse is assessing a client for manifestations of aplastic anemia. Which of the following
, 3
findings should the nurse expect?
A) Plethoric appearance of facial skin
B) Glossitis and weight loss
C) Jaundice with an enlarged liver
D) Petechiae and ecchymosis
E) Polycythemia
Correct Answer: D) Petechiae and ecchymosis
Rationale: Aplastic anemia is characterized by pancytopenia—a deficiency of all three
blood components (RBCs, WBCs, and platelets) due to bone marrow failure. The lack of
platelets (thrombocytopenia) leads to an increased risk of bleeding, which manifests as
petechiae (small red spots) and ecchymosis (bruising). Plethora is seen in polycythemia
vera. Glossitis is characteristic of B12 or iron deficiency. Jaundice is typical of hemolytic
anemia, where RBCs are being destroyed and releasing bilirubin, which is not the
mechanism of aplastic anemia.
Question 6
A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of pernicious anemia. The nurse should
expect the client's provider to prescribe which of the following medications for this client?
A) Ferrous sulfate
B) Epoetin alfa
C) Vitamin B12
D) Folic acid
E) Magnesium sulfate
Correct Answer: C) Vitamin B12
Rationale: Pernicious anemia is a type of vitamin B12 deficiency caused by a lack of
intrinsic factor, which is necessary for B12 absorption in the small intestine. Because the
client lacks intrinsic factor, oral B12 is often ineffective; therefore, life-long intramuscular
or deep subcutaneous injections of Vitamin B12 (cyanocobalamin) are required. Ferrous
sulfate is for iron deficiency; Epoetin alfa stimulates RBC production in chronic kidney
disease; and Folic acid is for folate-deficiency anemia.
Question 7
A nurse is reviewing the progress notes for a client who has heart failure. The provider noted
some improvement in the client's cardiac output. The nurse should understand that cardiac output
reflects which of the following physiologic parameters?
A) The percentage of blood the ventricles pump during each beat
B) The amount of blood the left ventricle pumps during each beat
C) The amount of blood in the left ventricle at the end of diastole
, 4
D) The heart rate times the stroke volume
E) The mean arterial pressure minus the central venous pressure
Correct Answer: D) The heart rate times the stroke volume
Rationale: Cardiac output (CO) is the volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute. It
is calculated by multiplying the Heart Rate (beats per minute) by the Stroke Volume (the
amount of blood ejected by the left ventricle with each contraction). Option A refers to the
Ejection Fraction. Option B refers to the Stroke Volume alone. Option C refers to Preload
(End Diastolic Volume). Understanding this formula is critical because a change in either
HR or SV will directly impact the total CO.
Question 8
A nurse is monitoring a client who has heart failure related to mitral stenosis. The client reports
shortness of breath on exertion. Which of the following conditions should the nurse expect?
A) Increased cardiac output
B) Increased pulmonary congestion
C) Decreased left atrial pressure
D) Decreased pulmonary artery pressure
E) Systemic vasodilation
Correct Answer: B) Increased pulmonary congestion
Rationale: Mitral stenosis is a narrowing of the mitral valve, which obstructs blood flow
from the left atrium into the left ventricle. This causes blood to back up into the left atrium,
leading to increased left atrial pressure and subsequent backup into the pulmonary veins
and capillaries. This increased hydrostatic pressure in the lungs leads to pulmonary
congestion and edema, manifesting as dyspnea (shortness of breath). In mitral stenosis,
cardiac output usually decreases, and pulmonary artery pressure increases.
Question 9
A nurse is teaching a client who has polycythemia vera about self-care measures. Which of the
following interventions should the nurse include?
A) "Drink at least 1 liter of fluid each day."
B) "Continuously wear support hose."
C) "Elevate your legs when sitting."
D) "Use dental floss daily."
E) "Take an iron supplement daily."
Correct Answer: C) "Elevate your legs when sitting."
Rationale: Polycythemia vera is a blood cancer that causes the bone marrow to make too
many red blood cells, making the blood thick (hyperviscosity). This thickness slows blood
flow and increases the risk of thrombus (clot) formation. Elevating the legs helps promote
venous return and prevents venous stasis. Clients should actually drink at least 3 liters of
SURG CARDIOVASCULAR NEWEST 2025 ACTUAL EXAM COMPLETE 200
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) |ALREADY
GRADED A+||BRAND NEW!!
Question 1
A nurse is completing an assessment on a client. Which of the following findings should the
nurse identify as a risk factor for coronary artery disease? (Select all that apply.)
A) Hypothyroidism
B) Hypertension
C) Diabetes mellitus
D) Hyperlipidemia
E) Tobacco smoking
Correct Answer: B, C, D, E) Hypertension, Diabetes mellitus, Hyperlipidemia, Tobacco
smoking
Rationale: Coronary artery disease (CAD) is caused by plaque buildup in the wall of the
arteries that supply blood to the heart. Hypertension is a major risk factor because high
blood pressure causes chronic shear stress on the arterial walls, leading to endothelial
injury. Diabetes mellitus accelerates the process of atherosclerosis due to hyperglycemia
causing oxidative stress and inflammation. Hyperlipidemia (high levels of LDL cholesterol)
provides the raw material for plaque formation within the vessel walls. Tobacco smoking is
a critical modifiable risk factor as it induces vasoconstriction and damages the endothelium
via carbon monoxide and nicotine. Hypothyroidism is not typically classified as a primary
risk factor for CAD, though it can contribute to secondary hyperlipidemia.
Question 2
A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving a unit of whole blood. Which of the following
findings should the nurse identify as a manifestation of a hemolytic transfusion reaction?
A) Bradycardia
B) Paresthesia
C) Hypertension
D) Low back pain
E) Polyuria
Correct Answer: D) Low back pain
Rationale: An acute hemolytic transfusion reaction occurs when the recipient's antibodies
destroy the donor's red blood cells. This destruction releases hemoglobin into the plasma,
which can travel to the kidneys and cause acute renal failure. The hallmark symptom of
this reaction is low back pain (lumbar pain) caused by the inflammatory response and the
filtration of hemoglobin through the kidneys. Other signs include fever, chills, hypotension,
and tachypnea. Bradycardia and hypertension are not typical; instead, the client usually
becomes tachycardic and hypotensive (shock). Paresthesia is more common in citrate
toxicity or hypocalcemia related to massive transfusions.
, 2
Question 3
A nurse is caring for a client who has scurvy. Which of the following vitamin deficiencies should
the nurse identify as the cause of this disease?
A) Vitamin A
B) Vitamin B3
C) Vitamin C
D) Vitamin D
E) Vitamin K
Correct Answer: C) Vitamin C
Rationale: Scurvy is a clinical syndrome resulting from a deficiency of Vitamin C (ascorbic
acid). Vitamin C is essential for the synthesis of collagen, which provides structural
integrity to blood vessels, skin, and connective tissue. Without it, clients experience
capillary fragility (leading to bruising and bleeding gums), poor wound healing, and joint
pain. Vitamin A deficiency causes night blindness; Vitamin B3 (niacin) deficiency causes
pellagra; Vitamin D deficiency causes rickets or osteomalacia; and Vitamin K deficiency
leads to impaired blood clotting.
Question 4
A nurse is caring for a client who has an upper gastrointestinal bleed and a hematocrit of 24%.
Prior to initiating a transfusion of packed red blood cells (RBCs), which of the following actions
should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.)
A) Assess and document the client's vital signs
B) Restart the IV with a 22-gauge needle
C) Verify with another nurse the blood type and Rh of the packed RBCs
D) Hang a bag of lactated Ringer's IV solution
E) Change IV tubing to a set that has a filter
Correct Answer: A, C, E) Assess and document the client's vital signs; Verify with another
nurse the blood type and Rh of the packed RBCs; Change IV tubing to a set that has a
filter
Rationale: Assessing vital signs establishes a baseline to monitor for transfusion reactions.
Verification of blood products must be done by two licensed nurses to ensure the donor and
recipient match, preventing fatal hemolytic reactions. Blood must be administered through
a filter to catch any small clots or debris. A 22-gauge needle is generally too small and can
cause hemolysis; an 18- or 20-gauge is preferred. Lactated Ringer’s should never be used
with blood because the calcium can cause clotting; only 0.9% sodium chloride (normal
saline) is compatible.
Question 5
A nurse is assessing a client for manifestations of aplastic anemia. Which of the following
, 3
findings should the nurse expect?
A) Plethoric appearance of facial skin
B) Glossitis and weight loss
C) Jaundice with an enlarged liver
D) Petechiae and ecchymosis
E) Polycythemia
Correct Answer: D) Petechiae and ecchymosis
Rationale: Aplastic anemia is characterized by pancytopenia—a deficiency of all three
blood components (RBCs, WBCs, and platelets) due to bone marrow failure. The lack of
platelets (thrombocytopenia) leads to an increased risk of bleeding, which manifests as
petechiae (small red spots) and ecchymosis (bruising). Plethora is seen in polycythemia
vera. Glossitis is characteristic of B12 or iron deficiency. Jaundice is typical of hemolytic
anemia, where RBCs are being destroyed and releasing bilirubin, which is not the
mechanism of aplastic anemia.
Question 6
A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of pernicious anemia. The nurse should
expect the client's provider to prescribe which of the following medications for this client?
A) Ferrous sulfate
B) Epoetin alfa
C) Vitamin B12
D) Folic acid
E) Magnesium sulfate
Correct Answer: C) Vitamin B12
Rationale: Pernicious anemia is a type of vitamin B12 deficiency caused by a lack of
intrinsic factor, which is necessary for B12 absorption in the small intestine. Because the
client lacks intrinsic factor, oral B12 is often ineffective; therefore, life-long intramuscular
or deep subcutaneous injections of Vitamin B12 (cyanocobalamin) are required. Ferrous
sulfate is for iron deficiency; Epoetin alfa stimulates RBC production in chronic kidney
disease; and Folic acid is for folate-deficiency anemia.
Question 7
A nurse is reviewing the progress notes for a client who has heart failure. The provider noted
some improvement in the client's cardiac output. The nurse should understand that cardiac output
reflects which of the following physiologic parameters?
A) The percentage of blood the ventricles pump during each beat
B) The amount of blood the left ventricle pumps during each beat
C) The amount of blood in the left ventricle at the end of diastole
, 4
D) The heart rate times the stroke volume
E) The mean arterial pressure minus the central venous pressure
Correct Answer: D) The heart rate times the stroke volume
Rationale: Cardiac output (CO) is the volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute. It
is calculated by multiplying the Heart Rate (beats per minute) by the Stroke Volume (the
amount of blood ejected by the left ventricle with each contraction). Option A refers to the
Ejection Fraction. Option B refers to the Stroke Volume alone. Option C refers to Preload
(End Diastolic Volume). Understanding this formula is critical because a change in either
HR or SV will directly impact the total CO.
Question 8
A nurse is monitoring a client who has heart failure related to mitral stenosis. The client reports
shortness of breath on exertion. Which of the following conditions should the nurse expect?
A) Increased cardiac output
B) Increased pulmonary congestion
C) Decreased left atrial pressure
D) Decreased pulmonary artery pressure
E) Systemic vasodilation
Correct Answer: B) Increased pulmonary congestion
Rationale: Mitral stenosis is a narrowing of the mitral valve, which obstructs blood flow
from the left atrium into the left ventricle. This causes blood to back up into the left atrium,
leading to increased left atrial pressure and subsequent backup into the pulmonary veins
and capillaries. This increased hydrostatic pressure in the lungs leads to pulmonary
congestion and edema, manifesting as dyspnea (shortness of breath). In mitral stenosis,
cardiac output usually decreases, and pulmonary artery pressure increases.
Question 9
A nurse is teaching a client who has polycythemia vera about self-care measures. Which of the
following interventions should the nurse include?
A) "Drink at least 1 liter of fluid each day."
B) "Continuously wear support hose."
C) "Elevate your legs when sitting."
D) "Use dental floss daily."
E) "Take an iron supplement daily."
Correct Answer: C) "Elevate your legs when sitting."
Rationale: Polycythemia vera is a blood cancer that causes the bone marrow to make too
many red blood cells, making the blood thick (hyperviscosity). This thickness slows blood
flow and increases the risk of thrombus (clot) formation. Elevating the legs helps promote
venous return and prevents venous stasis. Clients should actually drink at least 3 liters of
