1|Page
EVOLVE HESI Fundamentals Exit
Exam (2026) | Latest Updated
Questions & 100% Correct Verified
Answers | Grade A+ | Assured Pass
Exam Structure:
Subject: Nursing/Fundamentals Exit Exam Preparation
Source: Evolve HESI Fundamentals Exit Exam 2026
Format: Multiple-choice questions with Correct Answers and rationales
1. The nurse is instructing a client with high cholesterol about diet
and life style modification. What comment from the client indicates
that the teaching has been effective?
A) If I exercise at least two times weekly for one hour, I will lower my
cholesterol.
B) I need to avoid eating proteins, including red meat.
C) I will limit my intake of beef to 4 ounces per week.
D) My blood level of low density lipoproteins needs to increase.
Correct Answer: C) I will limit my intake of beef to 4 ounces per week.
Rationale:
1. Limiting saturated fat intake, such as from red meat, is a key dietary
modification for managing high cholesterol.
2. The recommendation to limit red meat to a small, specific amount
(e.g., 4 ounces per week) demonstrates an understanding of portion
control and dietary restriction.
3. This specific, measurable goal indicates effective client teaching and
comprehension.
, 2|Page
2. A client with acute hemorrhagic anemia is to receive four units of
packed RBCs (red blood cells) as rapidly as possible. Which
intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
A) Obtain the pre-transfusion hemoglobin level.
B) Prime the tubing and prepare a blood pump set-up.
C) Monitor vital signs q15 minutes for the first hour.
D) Ensure the accuracy of the blood type match.
Correct Answer: D) Ensure the accuracy of the blood type match.
Rationale:
1. The most critical safety step prior to any blood transfusion is
verifying the accuracy of the blood type and crossmatch to prevent a
fatal hemolytic transfusion reaction.
2. While priming tubing and monitoring vitals are important, they are
secondary to ensuring the correct blood product is administered.
3. This intervention addresses the greatest immediate risk to the client.
3. The nurse observes an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) taking
a client's blood pressure with a cuff that is too small, but the blood
pressure reading obtained is within the client's usual range. What
action is most important for the nurse to implement?
A) Tell the UAP to use a larger cuff at the next scheduled assessment.
B) Reassess the client's blood pressure using a larger cuff.
C) Have the unit educator review this procedure with the UAPs.
D) Teach the UAP the correct technique for assessing blood pressure.
Correct Answer: B) Reassess the client's blood pressure using a larger
cuff.
Rationale:
1. Using a cuff that is too small can yield a falsely elevated blood
pressure reading.
2. Even if the reading seems "usual," the nurse must immediately obtain
an accurate assessment with the correct equipment to ensure client
safety and data reliability.
3. Immediate reassessment takes priority over future teaching or
process reviews.
, 3|Page
4. The nurse prepares a 1,000 ml IV of 5% dextrose and water to be
infused over 8 hours. The infusion set delivers 10 drops per milliliter.
The nurse should regulate the IV to administer approximately how
many drops per minute?
A) 80
B) 8
C) 21
D) 25
Correct Answer: C) 21
Rationale:
1. Formula: (Total volume in mL x Drop factor) / Total time in minutes.
2. (1000 mL x 10 gtt/mL) / (8 hours x 60 minutes) = 10, =
20.83 gtt/min.
3. Rounded to the nearest whole number is 21 drops per minute.
5. A client is to receive 10 mEq of KCl diluted in 250 ml of normal
saline over 4 hours. At what rate should the nurse set the client's
intravenous infusion pump?
A) 13 ml/hour.
B) 63 ml/hour.
C) 80 ml/hour.
D) 125 ml/hour.
Correct Answer: B) 63 ml/hour.
Rationale:
1. Formula: Total volume / Total hours.
2. 250 mL / 4 hours = 62.5 mL/hour.
3. Rounded to the nearest whole number is 63 mL/hour.
6. When conducting an admission assessment, the nurse should ask
the client about the use of complimentary healing practices. Which
statement is accurate regarding the use of these practices?
A) Complimentary healing practices interfere with the efficacy of the
medical model of treatment.
B) Conventional medications are likely to interact with folk remedies and
cause adverse effects.
C) Many complimentary healing practices can be used in conjunction with
conventional practices.
, 4|Page
D) Conventional medical practices will ultimately replace the use of
complimentary healing practices.
Correct Answer: C) Many complimentary healing practices can be used
in conjunction with conventional practices.
Rationale:
1. An integrative healthcare approach acknowledges that many
complementary therapies can be used safely alongside conventional
medicine.
2. Assessing for their use is essential for providing holistic, client-
centered care and identifying potential interactions.
3. This statement reflects a non-judgmental, collaborative approach to
client care.
7. A client is to receive cimetidine (Tagamet) 300 mg q6h IVPB. The
preparation arrives from the pharmacy diluted in 50 ml of 0.9% NaCl.
The nurse plans to administer the IVPB dose over 20 minutes. For how
many ml/hr should the infusion pump be set to deliver the secondary
infusion?
Correct Answer: 150 ml/hr
Rationale:
1. Formula: (Volume in mL / Time in minutes) x 60 minutes.
2. (50 mL / 20 min) x 60 min = 2.5 x 60 = 150 mL/hr.
8. The nurse is performing nasotracheal suctioning. After suctioning
the client's trachea for fifteen seconds, large amounts of thick yellow
secretions return. What action should the nurse implement next?
A) Encourage the client to cough to help loosen secretions.
B) Advise the client to increase the intake of oral fluids.
C) Rotate the suction catheter to obtain any remaining secretions.
D) Re-oxygenate the client before attempting to suction again.
Correct Answer: D) Re-oxygenate the client before attempting to
suction again.
Rationale:
1. Suctioning removes secretions but also depletes oxygen. The priority
is to re-establish oxygenation before proceeding.
2. The nurse should limit suctioning to 10-15 seconds and re-oxygenate
the client between passes to prevent hypoxemia.
EVOLVE HESI Fundamentals Exit
Exam (2026) | Latest Updated
Questions & 100% Correct Verified
Answers | Grade A+ | Assured Pass
Exam Structure:
Subject: Nursing/Fundamentals Exit Exam Preparation
Source: Evolve HESI Fundamentals Exit Exam 2026
Format: Multiple-choice questions with Correct Answers and rationales
1. The nurse is instructing a client with high cholesterol about diet
and life style modification. What comment from the client indicates
that the teaching has been effective?
A) If I exercise at least two times weekly for one hour, I will lower my
cholesterol.
B) I need to avoid eating proteins, including red meat.
C) I will limit my intake of beef to 4 ounces per week.
D) My blood level of low density lipoproteins needs to increase.
Correct Answer: C) I will limit my intake of beef to 4 ounces per week.
Rationale:
1. Limiting saturated fat intake, such as from red meat, is a key dietary
modification for managing high cholesterol.
2. The recommendation to limit red meat to a small, specific amount
(e.g., 4 ounces per week) demonstrates an understanding of portion
control and dietary restriction.
3. This specific, measurable goal indicates effective client teaching and
comprehension.
, 2|Page
2. A client with acute hemorrhagic anemia is to receive four units of
packed RBCs (red blood cells) as rapidly as possible. Which
intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
A) Obtain the pre-transfusion hemoglobin level.
B) Prime the tubing and prepare a blood pump set-up.
C) Monitor vital signs q15 minutes for the first hour.
D) Ensure the accuracy of the blood type match.
Correct Answer: D) Ensure the accuracy of the blood type match.
Rationale:
1. The most critical safety step prior to any blood transfusion is
verifying the accuracy of the blood type and crossmatch to prevent a
fatal hemolytic transfusion reaction.
2. While priming tubing and monitoring vitals are important, they are
secondary to ensuring the correct blood product is administered.
3. This intervention addresses the greatest immediate risk to the client.
3. The nurse observes an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) taking
a client's blood pressure with a cuff that is too small, but the blood
pressure reading obtained is within the client's usual range. What
action is most important for the nurse to implement?
A) Tell the UAP to use a larger cuff at the next scheduled assessment.
B) Reassess the client's blood pressure using a larger cuff.
C) Have the unit educator review this procedure with the UAPs.
D) Teach the UAP the correct technique for assessing blood pressure.
Correct Answer: B) Reassess the client's blood pressure using a larger
cuff.
Rationale:
1. Using a cuff that is too small can yield a falsely elevated blood
pressure reading.
2. Even if the reading seems "usual," the nurse must immediately obtain
an accurate assessment with the correct equipment to ensure client
safety and data reliability.
3. Immediate reassessment takes priority over future teaching or
process reviews.
, 3|Page
4. The nurse prepares a 1,000 ml IV of 5% dextrose and water to be
infused over 8 hours. The infusion set delivers 10 drops per milliliter.
The nurse should regulate the IV to administer approximately how
many drops per minute?
A) 80
B) 8
C) 21
D) 25
Correct Answer: C) 21
Rationale:
1. Formula: (Total volume in mL x Drop factor) / Total time in minutes.
2. (1000 mL x 10 gtt/mL) / (8 hours x 60 minutes) = 10, =
20.83 gtt/min.
3. Rounded to the nearest whole number is 21 drops per minute.
5. A client is to receive 10 mEq of KCl diluted in 250 ml of normal
saline over 4 hours. At what rate should the nurse set the client's
intravenous infusion pump?
A) 13 ml/hour.
B) 63 ml/hour.
C) 80 ml/hour.
D) 125 ml/hour.
Correct Answer: B) 63 ml/hour.
Rationale:
1. Formula: Total volume / Total hours.
2. 250 mL / 4 hours = 62.5 mL/hour.
3. Rounded to the nearest whole number is 63 mL/hour.
6. When conducting an admission assessment, the nurse should ask
the client about the use of complimentary healing practices. Which
statement is accurate regarding the use of these practices?
A) Complimentary healing practices interfere with the efficacy of the
medical model of treatment.
B) Conventional medications are likely to interact with folk remedies and
cause adverse effects.
C) Many complimentary healing practices can be used in conjunction with
conventional practices.
, 4|Page
D) Conventional medical practices will ultimately replace the use of
complimentary healing practices.
Correct Answer: C) Many complimentary healing practices can be used
in conjunction with conventional practices.
Rationale:
1. An integrative healthcare approach acknowledges that many
complementary therapies can be used safely alongside conventional
medicine.
2. Assessing for their use is essential for providing holistic, client-
centered care and identifying potential interactions.
3. This statement reflects a non-judgmental, collaborative approach to
client care.
7. A client is to receive cimetidine (Tagamet) 300 mg q6h IVPB. The
preparation arrives from the pharmacy diluted in 50 ml of 0.9% NaCl.
The nurse plans to administer the IVPB dose over 20 minutes. For how
many ml/hr should the infusion pump be set to deliver the secondary
infusion?
Correct Answer: 150 ml/hr
Rationale:
1. Formula: (Volume in mL / Time in minutes) x 60 minutes.
2. (50 mL / 20 min) x 60 min = 2.5 x 60 = 150 mL/hr.
8. The nurse is performing nasotracheal suctioning. After suctioning
the client's trachea for fifteen seconds, large amounts of thick yellow
secretions return. What action should the nurse implement next?
A) Encourage the client to cough to help loosen secretions.
B) Advise the client to increase the intake of oral fluids.
C) Rotate the suction catheter to obtain any remaining secretions.
D) Re-oxygenate the client before attempting to suction again.
Correct Answer: D) Re-oxygenate the client before attempting to
suction again.
Rationale:
1. Suctioning removes secretions but also depletes oxygen. The priority
is to re-establish oxygenation before proceeding.
2. The nurse should limit suctioning to 10-15 seconds and re-oxygenate
the client between passes to prevent hypoxemia.
