ADULT HEALTH 2 HESI — 2026/2027 | 150 QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS | GRADED A+ | 100% VERIFIED
Adult Health 2 HESI Examination | Core Domains: Cardiovascular Disorders (Heart Failure, CAD, MI, Dysrhythmias, Valvular
Disease), Respiratory Disorders (COPD, Pneumonia, Pulmonary Embolism, ARDS), Neurological Disorders (CVA/Stroke, Seizures,
Parkinson's, Alzheimer's), Renal & Urinary Disorders (AKI, CKD, Dialysis), Endocrine Disorders (Diabetes Mellitus, Thyroid
Dysfunction, Adrenal Disorders), Gastrointestinal Disorders (Liver Disease, Pancreatitis, GI Bleed), Hematological Disorders (Anemias,
Coagulopathies), Musculoskeletal Disorders (Fractures, Osteoarthritis, Rheumatoid Arthritis), Immunological Disorders (HIV/AIDS,
Autoimmune Conditions), Perioperative Care, Fluid & Electrolyte Balance, Acid-Base Imbalances, Pharmacology, Pain Management,
Palliative & End-of-Life Care, and Multisystem Organ Failure | Undergraduate Nursing Focus | HESI Exam-Aligned Format
Exam Structure
Adult Health 2 HESI Exam is commonly structured as follows :
150 multiple-choice questions
Single-best-answer format
Application-, analysis-, and clinical judgment–focused items
Integrated case-based scenarios
Questions incorporating HESI-style priority, safety, and delegation frameworks
Select-all-that-apply (SATA) items as applicable
Pharmacology and dosage calculation questions
Comprehensive coverage of adult health nursing concepts
Introduction
This Adult Health 2 HESI Examination for the 2026/2027 academic cycle reflects Elsevier's HESI (Health Education Systems, Inc.)
assessment standards for undergraduate nursing students progressing through adult health curricula. The examination evaluates
comprehensive understanding of complex adult health conditions, evidence-based nursing interventions, pharmacological management,
complication recognition, and clinical judgment required for safe, competent nursing practice in medical-surgical and acute care settings.
Mastery of Adult Health 2 content is essential for NCLEX-RN success and transition into professional nursing practice.
Answer Format
All correct answers must be presented in bold and green, followed by clearly defined, clinically focused rationales that reinforce
evidence-based nursing practices, patient safety principles, pathophysiology connections, pharmacological reasoning, and clinical
judgment required for optimal patient outcomes in adult health settings.
Table of Contents
Questions 1-25: Cardiovascular Disorders
Questions 26-50: Respiratory Disorders & Fluid/Electrolyte/Acid-Base
Questions 51-75: Neurological Disorders
Questions 76-100: Endocrine & Renal Disorders
Questions 101-125: Gastrointestinal, Hematological, & Immunological Disorders
Questions 126-150: Perioperative, Pain, & Palliative Care
Questions 1-25: Cardiovascular Disorders
,1.
The nurse is caring for a client admitted with acute decompensated heart failure. Which assessment finding requires
immediate intervention?
A. Bilateral +2 pedal edema.
B. Weight gain of 2 kg (4.4 lbs) in 2 days.
C. Crackles heard at lung bases with frothy sputum.
D. Report of fatigue and dyspnea on exertion.
C. Crackles heard at lung bases with frothy sputum.
Rationale: Crackles at lung bases and frothy sputum are indicative of acute pulmonary edema, a severe and life-threatening
complication of decompensated heart failure that can rapidly lead to respiratory failure. This requires immediate intervention, such
as administering oxygen, diuretics, and possibly vasodilators or inotropes as prescribed. While pedal edema (A), weight gain (B),
and dyspnea/fatigue (D) are expected findings in heart failure, frothy sputum with crackles signals a critical worsening of the
condition.
2.
The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with new-onset heart failure regarding diet modifications. Which
statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
A. "I will need to check my weight every morning and call the doctor if it changes suddenly."
B. "I should limit my sodium intake to about 2 grams per day."
C. "I can still enjoy canned soups and frozen dinners as long as I don't add salt."
D. "I will choose fresh fruits and vegetables more often."
C. "I can still enjoy canned soups and frozen dinners as long as I don't add salt."
Rationale: Canned soups and frozen dinners are typically very high in sodium, even if no additional salt is added during
preparation. Clients with heart failure should avoid these processed foods as part of a low-sodium diet (usually <2g/day) to prevent
fluid retention and exacerbation of symptoms. Checking daily weights (A) and consuming fresh produce (D) are appropriate.
Limiting sodium to 2 grams per day (B) is also correct.
3.
A client with a history of myocardial infarction (MI) is prescribed Metoprolol. The nurse should instruct the client to report
which side effect immediately?
A. Dizziness upon standing.
B. Cold hands and feet.
C. Swelling in the ankles and feet.
D. Fatigue and decreased exercise tolerance.
C. Swelling in the ankles and feet.
Rationale: Swelling in the ankles and feet (peripheral edema) can indicate worsening heart failure, a potential complication of MI,
and should be reported to the provider immediately. While metoprolol (a beta-blocker) can cause dizziness (A), cold extremities
(B), and fatigue (D), these are common side effects and not usually immediately life-threatening unless severe. Worsening heart
failure, however, requires prompt medical evaluation and potential adjustment of treatment.
,4.
The nurse is assessing a client with mitral valve stenosis. Which finding would the nurse expect to auscultate?
A. A systolic murmur best heard at the apex.
B. A diastolic murmur best heard at the apex.
C. A harsh, crescendo-decrescendo systolic murmur at the right upper sternal border.
D. A high-pitched, blowing diastolic murmur at the left sternal border.
B. A diastolic murmur best heard at the apex.
Rationale: Mitral valve stenosis is a narrowing of the mitral valve, impeding blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle
during diastole. This creates a characteristic diastolic murmur, often described as a low-pitched, rumbling sound, best heard at the
apex with the bell of the stethoscope. Option A describes mitral regurgitation. Option C describes aortic stenosis. Option D
describes aortic regurgitation.
5.
A client with chronic atrial fibrillation is prescribed Warfarin. Which dietary instruction is most important for the nurse to
include in teaching?
A. "Avoid all green leafy vegetables."
B. "Maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K-rich foods."
D. "Eat more foods rich in vitamin C to boost immunity."
D. "Increase your intake of calcium-fortified products."
B. "Maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K-rich foods."
Rationale: Warfarin is a vitamin K antagonist. Fluctuations in vitamin K intake can significantly alter the medication's
anticoagulant effect, leading to either increased bleeding risk (too little vitamin K) or increased clotting risk (too much vitamin K).
The client does not need to avoid all vitamin K foods but must maintain a consistent daily intake.
6.
A client reports crushing substernal chest pain radiating to the left arm, unrelieved by rest or nitroglycerin. The nurse's
priority action is to:
A. Administer aspirin and initiate oxygen therapy.
B. Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG).
C. Administer morphine sulfate intravenously.
D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
B. Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG).
Rationale: While administering oxygen and aspirin (A) are important initial interventions for suspected acute coronary syndrome,
obtaining a 12-lead ECG (B) is the priority within 10 minutes of arrival. The ECG is critical for differentiating between STEMI,
NSTEMI, or unstable angina, which guides immediate treatment decisions, including reperfusion therapy. Morphine (C) can be
given for pain unrelieved by nitroglycerin, but ECG for diagnosis is paramount. Notifying the provider (D) is important but occurs
after initial assessment and diagnostic steps.
, 7.
Which finding would cause the nurse to suspect cardiac tamponade in a client post-cardiac surgery? Select all that apply.
A. Muffled heart sounds.
B. Hypotension.
C. Distended neck veins.
D. Bradycardia.
E. Widened pulse pressure.
A. Muffled heart sounds, B. Hypotension, C. Distended neck veins.
Rationale: This triad of findings (Beck's triad) is highly indicative of cardiac tamponade, a life-threatening condition where fluid
accumulates in the pericardial sac, compressing the heart and impairing its ability to fill. Muffled heart sounds (A), hypotension (B),
and distended neck veins (C) are classic signs. Bradycardia (D) is less typical; patients often present with tachycardia. Widened
pulse pressure (E) is generally not seen in tamponade; rather, a narrowed pulse pressure (difference between systolic and diastolic
BP) is a common finding.
8.
A client is admitted with infective endocarditis. The nurse understands that a priority intervention for this client is to:
A. Administer antipyretics for fever.
B. Monitor for signs of embolization.
C. Provide frequent oral hygiene.
D. Encourage early ambulation.
B. Monitor for signs of embolization.
Rationale: The vegetations on the heart valves in infective endocarditis can dislodge and cause embolization to various organs
(e.g., stroke, pulmonary embolism, renal infarction, splenic infarction, limb ischemia). Monitoring for signs of new neurologic
deficits, chest pain, flank pain, or limb pain/pallor is a priority as these complications can be life-threatening. While antipyretics
(A), oral hygiene (C), and ambulation (D, when stable) are important, embolization is the most critical acute complication to
monitor for.
9.
The nurse is reviewing the medication list for a client with hypertension. Which medication classification is typically
recommended as a first-line treatment for uncomplicated hypertension?
A. Beta-blockers.
B. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors.
c C. Alpha-adrenergic blockers.
D. Loop diuretics.
B. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors.
Rationale: For most patients with uncomplicated hypertension, ACE inhibitors, Angiotensin Receptor Blockers (ARBs), calcium
channel blockers, and thiazide diuretics are recommended as first-line therapy. Beta-blockers (A) are generally not first-line unless
there's a compelling indication (e.g., post-MI, heart failure). Alpha-blockers (C) are typically used for resistant hypertension or
BPH. Loop diuretics (D) are more potent and usually reserved for clients with fluid overload (e.g., heart failure) rather than
essential hypertension.
CORRECT ANSWERS | GRADED A+ | 100% VERIFIED
Adult Health 2 HESI Examination | Core Domains: Cardiovascular Disorders (Heart Failure, CAD, MI, Dysrhythmias, Valvular
Disease), Respiratory Disorders (COPD, Pneumonia, Pulmonary Embolism, ARDS), Neurological Disorders (CVA/Stroke, Seizures,
Parkinson's, Alzheimer's), Renal & Urinary Disorders (AKI, CKD, Dialysis), Endocrine Disorders (Diabetes Mellitus, Thyroid
Dysfunction, Adrenal Disorders), Gastrointestinal Disorders (Liver Disease, Pancreatitis, GI Bleed), Hematological Disorders (Anemias,
Coagulopathies), Musculoskeletal Disorders (Fractures, Osteoarthritis, Rheumatoid Arthritis), Immunological Disorders (HIV/AIDS,
Autoimmune Conditions), Perioperative Care, Fluid & Electrolyte Balance, Acid-Base Imbalances, Pharmacology, Pain Management,
Palliative & End-of-Life Care, and Multisystem Organ Failure | Undergraduate Nursing Focus | HESI Exam-Aligned Format
Exam Structure
Adult Health 2 HESI Exam is commonly structured as follows :
150 multiple-choice questions
Single-best-answer format
Application-, analysis-, and clinical judgment–focused items
Integrated case-based scenarios
Questions incorporating HESI-style priority, safety, and delegation frameworks
Select-all-that-apply (SATA) items as applicable
Pharmacology and dosage calculation questions
Comprehensive coverage of adult health nursing concepts
Introduction
This Adult Health 2 HESI Examination for the 2026/2027 academic cycle reflects Elsevier's HESI (Health Education Systems, Inc.)
assessment standards for undergraduate nursing students progressing through adult health curricula. The examination evaluates
comprehensive understanding of complex adult health conditions, evidence-based nursing interventions, pharmacological management,
complication recognition, and clinical judgment required for safe, competent nursing practice in medical-surgical and acute care settings.
Mastery of Adult Health 2 content is essential for NCLEX-RN success and transition into professional nursing practice.
Answer Format
All correct answers must be presented in bold and green, followed by clearly defined, clinically focused rationales that reinforce
evidence-based nursing practices, patient safety principles, pathophysiology connections, pharmacological reasoning, and clinical
judgment required for optimal patient outcomes in adult health settings.
Table of Contents
Questions 1-25: Cardiovascular Disorders
Questions 26-50: Respiratory Disorders & Fluid/Electrolyte/Acid-Base
Questions 51-75: Neurological Disorders
Questions 76-100: Endocrine & Renal Disorders
Questions 101-125: Gastrointestinal, Hematological, & Immunological Disorders
Questions 126-150: Perioperative, Pain, & Palliative Care
Questions 1-25: Cardiovascular Disorders
,1.
The nurse is caring for a client admitted with acute decompensated heart failure. Which assessment finding requires
immediate intervention?
A. Bilateral +2 pedal edema.
B. Weight gain of 2 kg (4.4 lbs) in 2 days.
C. Crackles heard at lung bases with frothy sputum.
D. Report of fatigue and dyspnea on exertion.
C. Crackles heard at lung bases with frothy sputum.
Rationale: Crackles at lung bases and frothy sputum are indicative of acute pulmonary edema, a severe and life-threatening
complication of decompensated heart failure that can rapidly lead to respiratory failure. This requires immediate intervention, such
as administering oxygen, diuretics, and possibly vasodilators or inotropes as prescribed. While pedal edema (A), weight gain (B),
and dyspnea/fatigue (D) are expected findings in heart failure, frothy sputum with crackles signals a critical worsening of the
condition.
2.
The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with new-onset heart failure regarding diet modifications. Which
statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
A. "I will need to check my weight every morning and call the doctor if it changes suddenly."
B. "I should limit my sodium intake to about 2 grams per day."
C. "I can still enjoy canned soups and frozen dinners as long as I don't add salt."
D. "I will choose fresh fruits and vegetables more often."
C. "I can still enjoy canned soups and frozen dinners as long as I don't add salt."
Rationale: Canned soups and frozen dinners are typically very high in sodium, even if no additional salt is added during
preparation. Clients with heart failure should avoid these processed foods as part of a low-sodium diet (usually <2g/day) to prevent
fluid retention and exacerbation of symptoms. Checking daily weights (A) and consuming fresh produce (D) are appropriate.
Limiting sodium to 2 grams per day (B) is also correct.
3.
A client with a history of myocardial infarction (MI) is prescribed Metoprolol. The nurse should instruct the client to report
which side effect immediately?
A. Dizziness upon standing.
B. Cold hands and feet.
C. Swelling in the ankles and feet.
D. Fatigue and decreased exercise tolerance.
C. Swelling in the ankles and feet.
Rationale: Swelling in the ankles and feet (peripheral edema) can indicate worsening heart failure, a potential complication of MI,
and should be reported to the provider immediately. While metoprolol (a beta-blocker) can cause dizziness (A), cold extremities
(B), and fatigue (D), these are common side effects and not usually immediately life-threatening unless severe. Worsening heart
failure, however, requires prompt medical evaluation and potential adjustment of treatment.
,4.
The nurse is assessing a client with mitral valve stenosis. Which finding would the nurse expect to auscultate?
A. A systolic murmur best heard at the apex.
B. A diastolic murmur best heard at the apex.
C. A harsh, crescendo-decrescendo systolic murmur at the right upper sternal border.
D. A high-pitched, blowing diastolic murmur at the left sternal border.
B. A diastolic murmur best heard at the apex.
Rationale: Mitral valve stenosis is a narrowing of the mitral valve, impeding blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle
during diastole. This creates a characteristic diastolic murmur, often described as a low-pitched, rumbling sound, best heard at the
apex with the bell of the stethoscope. Option A describes mitral regurgitation. Option C describes aortic stenosis. Option D
describes aortic regurgitation.
5.
A client with chronic atrial fibrillation is prescribed Warfarin. Which dietary instruction is most important for the nurse to
include in teaching?
A. "Avoid all green leafy vegetables."
B. "Maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K-rich foods."
D. "Eat more foods rich in vitamin C to boost immunity."
D. "Increase your intake of calcium-fortified products."
B. "Maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K-rich foods."
Rationale: Warfarin is a vitamin K antagonist. Fluctuations in vitamin K intake can significantly alter the medication's
anticoagulant effect, leading to either increased bleeding risk (too little vitamin K) or increased clotting risk (too much vitamin K).
The client does not need to avoid all vitamin K foods but must maintain a consistent daily intake.
6.
A client reports crushing substernal chest pain radiating to the left arm, unrelieved by rest or nitroglycerin. The nurse's
priority action is to:
A. Administer aspirin and initiate oxygen therapy.
B. Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG).
C. Administer morphine sulfate intravenously.
D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
B. Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG).
Rationale: While administering oxygen and aspirin (A) are important initial interventions for suspected acute coronary syndrome,
obtaining a 12-lead ECG (B) is the priority within 10 minutes of arrival. The ECG is critical for differentiating between STEMI,
NSTEMI, or unstable angina, which guides immediate treatment decisions, including reperfusion therapy. Morphine (C) can be
given for pain unrelieved by nitroglycerin, but ECG for diagnosis is paramount. Notifying the provider (D) is important but occurs
after initial assessment and diagnostic steps.
, 7.
Which finding would cause the nurse to suspect cardiac tamponade in a client post-cardiac surgery? Select all that apply.
A. Muffled heart sounds.
B. Hypotension.
C. Distended neck veins.
D. Bradycardia.
E. Widened pulse pressure.
A. Muffled heart sounds, B. Hypotension, C. Distended neck veins.
Rationale: This triad of findings (Beck's triad) is highly indicative of cardiac tamponade, a life-threatening condition where fluid
accumulates in the pericardial sac, compressing the heart and impairing its ability to fill. Muffled heart sounds (A), hypotension (B),
and distended neck veins (C) are classic signs. Bradycardia (D) is less typical; patients often present with tachycardia. Widened
pulse pressure (E) is generally not seen in tamponade; rather, a narrowed pulse pressure (difference between systolic and diastolic
BP) is a common finding.
8.
A client is admitted with infective endocarditis. The nurse understands that a priority intervention for this client is to:
A. Administer antipyretics for fever.
B. Monitor for signs of embolization.
C. Provide frequent oral hygiene.
D. Encourage early ambulation.
B. Monitor for signs of embolization.
Rationale: The vegetations on the heart valves in infective endocarditis can dislodge and cause embolization to various organs
(e.g., stroke, pulmonary embolism, renal infarction, splenic infarction, limb ischemia). Monitoring for signs of new neurologic
deficits, chest pain, flank pain, or limb pain/pallor is a priority as these complications can be life-threatening. While antipyretics
(A), oral hygiene (C), and ambulation (D, when stable) are important, embolization is the most critical acute complication to
monitor for.
9.
The nurse is reviewing the medication list for a client with hypertension. Which medication classification is typically
recommended as a first-line treatment for uncomplicated hypertension?
A. Beta-blockers.
B. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors.
c C. Alpha-adrenergic blockers.
D. Loop diuretics.
B. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors.
Rationale: For most patients with uncomplicated hypertension, ACE inhibitors, Angiotensin Receptor Blockers (ARBs), calcium
channel blockers, and thiazide diuretics are recommended as first-line therapy. Beta-blockers (A) are generally not first-line unless
there's a compelling indication (e.g., post-MI, heart failure). Alpha-blockers (C) are typically used for resistant hypertension or
BPH. Loop diuretics (D) are more potent and usually reserved for clients with fluid overload (e.g., heart failure) rather than
essential hypertension.
