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1. Large infusion volumes of _________ may worsen coagulopathy and increase
bleeding when treating shock in a trauma casualty.
A. Crystalloids
B. Whole Blood
C. Plasma
D. Red Blood Cells: A. Crystalloids
2. What is a reliable indicator of shock in the Tactical Field Care (TFC) setting?
A. Decreased respiration rate
B. Dilated pupils
C. Weak radial pulse
D. Hoarseness: C. Weak radial pulse
3. Which of the following are found within the Joint First Aid Kit (JFAK)?
A. Ibuprofen, chest seal, chest tube
B. Nasopharyngeal airway (NPA), chest seal, endotracheal tube
C. Chest seal, NPA, tourniquet
D. Chest seal, Ibuprofen, bag valve mask: C. Chest seal, NPA, tourniquet
4. What is the minimum information required to launch the evacuation asset
when calling in a 9-Line MEDEVAC request for casualty evacuation?
A. MIST report
B. Lines 1-5
C. DD Form 1380
D. Lines 6-9: B. Lines 1-5
5. Casualties often suffer multiple injuries and require more equipment than
they carry in their own Joint First Aid Kit (JFAK)/first aid kits. Which of the fol-
lowing kits would provide additional medical equipment to help treat casualties
with multiple injuries?
A. Combat Lifesaver (CLS) bag
B. Hypothermia Prevention and Management Kit (HPMK)
C. Individual First Aid Kit (IFAK)
D. Buddy Aid Kit (BAK): D. Buddy Aid Kit (BAK)
6. Why is it important to prepare pre-mission casualty evacuation equipment?
a. If the equipment is prepared in advance, there is no need to train or rehearse
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on how to use it
b. To ensure it is in working order and that all of the equipment necessary is
present
c. Preparing equipment in advance results in favorable unit evaluations
d. Properly prepared equipment takes up less space in your unit vehicles: b. To
ensure it is in working order and that all of the equipment necessary is present
7. A life-threatening hemorrhage does not include:
a. Bright-red blood pooling on the ground
b. Pulsatile, steady bleeding
c. Dark-red, slow-trickling bleeding
d. Bandages or clothes soaked with blood: c. Dark-red, slow-trickling bleeding
8. During the assessment of a casualty with a suspected pelvic fracture, the
medic should not
check for pelvic instability by applying bilateral downward pressure on the
pelvis because
_________________________.
a. it would cause excess pain to the casualty
b. it is not an effective method to evaluate for pelvic instability
c. it should only be performed on unconscious casualties
d. it causes further damage if a pelvic fracture is present: d. it causes further damage if a
pelvic fracture is present
9. What is the preferred route of administration for fentanyl in a conscious
casualty that is in
moderate pain, but shows no signs of shock?
a. Intravenous
b. Transmucosal
c. Intranasal
d. Intraosseous: b. Transmucosal
10. The management of shock involves prevention and treatment of acidosis,
coagulopathy, and
hypothermia. This compilation of symptoms is known as _________________.
a. Cushing's triad of head injuries
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b. Lethal triad of hemorrhagic shock
c. Beck's triad of cardiac tamponade
d. Virchow's triad of hypercoagulability: b. Lethal triad of hemorrhagic shock
11. We have established that Hypovolemia is usually the primary cause for
altered mental status
on the battlefield out of the various principal causes. You should also expect to
see
________________ if present, exacerbate a casualties mental status combined with
the
Hypovolemia
a. Hypothermia
b. Traumatic brain injury
c. Hypoxia
d. Hypovolemic shock: a. Hypothermia
12. Which form is used to document casualty data, injuries, and medical inter-
ventions?
a. DD Form 1582
b. DD Form 1480
c. DD Form 1380
d. DD Form 1630: c. DD Form 1380
13. Casualties with altered mental status should be ________________.
a. Immediately disarmed
b. Allowed to keep communications equipment
c. Physically restrained at all times
d. Permitted to hold on to mission-sensitive items: a. Immediately disarmed
14. Which of the following is a contraindication to the administration of intra-
venous
fentanyl?
a. Hypovolemic shock
b. Hypothermia
c. Able to swallow
d. Hypertension: a. Hypovolemic shock
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15. Casualty care documentation that is not completed in real-time at the point
of injury should
be documented retrospectively utilizing the _____________________.
a. DD Form 1380
b. TCCC After Action Report
c. Patient's medical record at the Role 3 facility
d. After Action Review debriefing method: b. TCCC After Action Report
16. What are the top priorities during Care Under Fire (CUF), Tactical Field Care
(TFC), and
Tactical Evacuation Care (TACEVAC) respectively?
a. CUF - establish scene safety and stop life-threatening external hemorrhage
if tactically feasible,
TFC - establish a secure perimeter and triage casualties, TACEVAC - establish
evacuation point
security and stage casualties for evacuation
b. CUF - fire superiority and MARCH PAWS interventions, TFC - tactical trauma
assessment and
evacuation requests, TACEVAC - tourniquet reassessment and casualty prepa-
ration
c. CUF - MARCH interventions and immediate casualty extraction, TFC - fire
superiority and
remaining MARCH PAWS interventions, TACEVAC - medical resupply and estab-
lishment of a secure
perimeter
d. CUF - fire superiority and evacuation request initiation, TFC - MARCH inter-
ventions and casualty
preparation, TACEVAC - remaining MARCH PAWS interventions and hypother-
mia preventio: a. CUF - establish scene safety and stop life-threatening external hemorrhage if tactically
feasible,
TFC - establish a secure perimeter and triage casualties, TACEVAC - establish evacuation point
security and stage casualties for evacuation