V7 EXAM
Actual Qs & Ans to Pass the Exam
This Exit Hesi Test contains:
passing score 95% Guarantee
The Exam has 160 Ques and Ans
Format Set of Multiple-choice
questions with incorporating Next Generation NCLEX
(NGN) and Case studies questions
Expert-Verified Explanations & Solutions
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QUESTION 1 (Single Choice – NGN: Behavior and Mental Health)
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A group of nursing students is touring an inpatient psychiatric unit when a male client who is in a manic state shouts,
“Want to see a crazy person?” and begins to jump up and down, flap his arms, and cluck like a chicken. Which action
is best for the nurse to take?
A. Direct the students to continue the tour without responding to the client’s behavior.
B. Medicate the client with a PRN prescription for an antianxiety agent.
C. Restrict the client to his room until he can control his behaviors.
D. Redirect the client’s acting-out behavior by asking him to perform a unit task.
ANSWER: D. Redirect the client’s acting-out behavior by asking him to perform a unit task.
EXPERT-VERIFIED EXPLANATION:
• When a client in a manic state begins exhibiting disruptive or attention-seeking behavior, a therapeutic response is
to redirect the energy toward a constructive task.
• Restricting the client or leaving entirely can escalate agitation or reinforce negative behavior.
• Medication may be used if de-escalation or redirection fails, but the least restrictive approach—redirection—is
attempted first.
• Involving the client in a purposeful, structured activity helps channel excess energy safely and maintains the dignity
of the client.
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QUESTION 2 (Single Choice – NGN: Neurologic Trauma & Priority)
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An adult male client is brought to the emergency department (ED) by ambulance following a motorcycle collision. He
was not wearing a helmet and presents with periorbital bruising and bloody drainage from both ears. Which
assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
A. Rebound abdominal tenderness
B. Diminished bilateral breath sounds
C. Nausea with projectile vomiting
D. Rib pain with deep inspiration
ANSWER: C. Nausea with projectile vomiting
EXPERT-VERIFIED EXPLANATION:
• Basilar skull fracture signs include raccoon eyes (periorbital bruising) and bloody ear drainage.
• Projectile vomiting is a hallmark sign of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) and indicates a risk for brain herniation
or worsening head injury.
• This requires immediate intervention to prevent neurologic complications.
• While altered breath sounds or abdominal tenderness are important, ICP changes typically take priority in this
scenario.
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QUESTION 3 (Select All That Apply – NGN: Pharmacology & Teaching)
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,A client diagnosed with Parkinson’s disease receives a prescription for carbidopa-levodopa controlled-release (CR)
25/100 mg PO daily each morning. Which information should the nurse include in the client’s teaching plan? (Select
all that apply.)
A. Parkinson symptoms should diminish within one week.
B. Avoid sunlight and wear sunglasses while outdoors.
C. A change in urine color to dark red often occurs while taking this drug.
D. An upset stomach may occur as a side effect of this medication.
E. The medication should only be taken during a meal.
CORRECT ANSWERS:
C. A change in urine color to dark red often occurs while taking this drug.
D. An upset stomach may occur as a side effect of this medication.
EXPERT-VERIFIED EXPLANATION:
• Carbidopa-levodopa can cause darkening of body fluids (including saliva, urine, sweat). Clients should be
forewarned.
• GI upset is common; taking it with some food (or shortly after meals) can reduce nausea, but it does not have to be
exclusively “only” with meals.
• Onset of full therapeutic effect often takes weeks, not just one week.
• Photosensitivity is not a typical teaching point for carbidopa-levodopa.
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QUESTION 4 (Dosage Calculation – NGN: IV Infusion Regulation)
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The healthcare provider (HCP) prescribes 500 mL of 0.45% normal saline with 100 units of regular insulin to infuse at
15 units/hour. The drop factor is 20 gtt/mL. The nurse should regulate the IV to deliver how many gtt/minute? (Enter
numerical value only.)
ANSWER: 25 gtt/min
EXPERT-VERIFIED EXPLANATION:
• Calculation steps:
1) 15 units/hour means 15 units in 60 minutes.
2) The entire bag has 100 units in 500 mL.
3) If 15 units are given in 1 hour, then volume in mL for 1 hour = (15 units ÷ 100 units) × 500 mL = 75 mL/hour.
4) Using a 20 gtt/mL set: (75 mL/hr × 20 gtt/mL) ÷ 60 min = 25 gtt/min.
• Double-checking your math ensures safe infusion rates.
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QUESTION 5 (Single Choice – NGN: Psychiatric/Mental Health Interventions)
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A client with generalized anxiety disorder does not want to communicate with friends, smokes 2 to 3 packs of
cigarettes a day, and describes difficulty concentrating at work. Which coping strategy should the nurse include in the
plan of care (POC)?
A. Focus on small achievable tasks, not taxing problems.
B. Concentrate on and ventilate emotions when distressed.
C. Relax and reduce the amount of effort to solve the problem.
D. Analyze past hurts and resentments to identify the source.
, ANSWER: A. Focus on small achievable tasks, not taxing problems.
EXPERT-VERIFIED EXPLANATION:
• Clients experiencing high anxiety benefit from “chunking” tasks into manageable steps.
• Gradual successes can build confidence and reduce overall anxiety.
• Focusing on deeply analyzing resentments or fully ventilating emotions may initially exacerbate anxiety.
• Relaxation is helpful, but a structured approach to tasks is a prioritized coping mechanism.
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QUESTION 6 (Single Choice – NGN: Neurologic Assessment & Stroke)
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The nurse is caring for a client who reports sudden right-sided numbness and weakness of the arm and leg, and the
nurse also observes a distinct right-sided facial droop. After reporting the findings to the healthcare provider (HCP),
the nurse receives several prescriptions for the client, including a STAT CT scan of the head. Which action should the
nurse take first?
A. Raise the head of the bed to 30°, keeping the head and neck in neutral alignment.
B. Start two large-bore peripheral IV catheters and review inclusion criteria for IV fibrinolytic therapy.
C. Administer aspirin to prevent further clot formation and platelet clumping.
D. Begin continuous observation for transient episodes of neurologic dysfunction.
ANSWER: A. Raise the head of the bed to 30°, keeping the head and neck in neutral alignment.
EXPERT-VERIFIED EXPLANATION:
• Suspected stroke requires prompt interventions to optimize cerebral perfusion and reduce intracranial pressure.
• Elevating the head of the bed to about 30° can help venous drainage while maintaining adequate blood flow to the
brain.
• IV access and stroke-specific therapies are critical, but positioning to protect airway and reduce ICP is a top
immediate measure.
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QUESTION 7 (Single Choice – NGN: Pharmacology & Safe Medication Use)
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An older adult client is admitted with pneumonia, and the healthcare provider prescribes penicillin G potassium IV.
Which assessment finding increases the risk of adverse reactions in this client?
A. Previous treatment with penicillin for pneumonia
B. Daily use of spironolactone for hypertension
C. Documented allergy to sulfonamides
D. Sputum culture results of Streptococcus pneumoniae
ANSWER: B. Daily use of spironolactone for hypertension
EXPERT-VERIFIED EXPLANATION:
• Penicillin G potassium can contribute to hyperkalemia, especially when combined with potassium-sparing diuretics
(like spironolactone).
• This older adult is at greater risk for hyperkalemia, which can cause cardiac arrhythmias.
• Previous penicillin treatment or sulfonamide allergy does not always predict penicillin allergy or side effects.
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QUESTION 8 (Single Choice – NGN: Pediatric IM Injection)