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ABSITE Exam Preparation Version 1 Newest Verified
Exam With Complete 600 Questions And Correct
Detailed Answers| Newest Exam!!!
A 61-year-old male with pancreatic cancer presents for
preoperative evaluation prior to pancreaticoduodenectomy.
He is unable to walk two city blocks. His history is
significant for GERD, hyperlipidemia and diabetes
mellitus. Which of the following is an indication that this
patient should undergo a preoperative echocardiogram?
A. Inability to walk two blocks
B. History of diabetes mellitus
C. History of hyperlipidemia
D. Age over 60 years
E. High-risk surgical procedure - Answers-A
Echocardiography testing preoperatively should be used
selectively in patients at high risk for cardiac complications
perioperatively. This includes patients who are unable to
achieve four metabolic equivalents (METs), defined as
climbing two flights of stairs or walking four city blocks.
Achieving less than 4 METs indicates poor cardiac
reserve, and echocardiogram is indicated before
intermediate or major risk surgery. Diabetes,
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hyperlipidemia, age, and the operation risk are not
reasons for preoperative echocardiography.
A 75-year-old man complains of severe rest pain in his
right leg. He has no pulse in the femoral artery or below
with an ABI index of .2, but no gangrene. He has pulses in
the left leg. His BP is 150/80 mmHg, pulse 60 bpm, RR 18
breaths/min. He is on clopidogrel (Plavix), a beta blocker,
and a statin. His EKG and echocardiogram show no acute
changes and his ejection fraction is 60%. Which of the
following medications should he receive the day of
surgery?
A. Beta blocker alone
B. Clopidogrel and statin
C. Beta blocker and statin
D. Beta blocker, statin, and low molecular weight heparin
E. ACE inhibitor, aspirin, and statin - Answers-D
Beta blockers and statins have been demonstrated to
lower cardiac risk and should be continued perioperatively.
Clopidogrel (Plavix) is difficult to reverse and should be
discontinued preoperatively if there is a risk of bleeding.
He should also receive low molecular weight heparin for
prophylaxis. There is no clear indication to add aspirin.
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A 65-year-old woman needs a mastectomy and
reconstruction for breast cancer. She had coronary artery
drug-eluting stents placed 14 months ago following a
STEMI. She takes warfarin for atrial fibrillation as well as
Plavix and aspirin. She has shortness of breath and ankle
edema without chest pain. There are bibasilar rales on
chest examination. She hasn't seen her cardiologist in 3
months. Which of the following is her major cardiac risk
factor, as determined by a Revised Cardiac Risk Index?
A. Atrial fibrillation
B. Congestive heart failure
C. Coronary artery disease
D. The presence of drug-eluting stents - Answers-B
Congestive heart failure is the major contributing factor to
post-operative major cardiac events. The risk of another
MI decreases after 6 months and has been treated with
stents, which no longer require immediate perioperative
anticoagulation.
A 78-year-old man is brought to your office in a wheelchair.
He says his abdominal wall hernia has been getting bigger
and wonders if he needs surgery. He looks thin and pale,
but in no distress. He is mildly hypertensive (150/90), had
ABSITE Exam Preparation Version 1 Newest Verified
Exam With Complete 600 Questions And Correct
Detailed Answers| Newest Exam!!!
A 61-year-old male with pancreatic cancer presents for
preoperative evaluation prior to pancreaticoduodenectomy.
He is unable to walk two city blocks. His history is
significant for GERD, hyperlipidemia and diabetes
mellitus. Which of the following is an indication that this
patient should undergo a preoperative echocardiogram?
A. Inability to walk two blocks
B. History of diabetes mellitus
C. History of hyperlipidemia
D. Age over 60 years
E. High-risk surgical procedure - Answers-A
Echocardiography testing preoperatively should be used
selectively in patients at high risk for cardiac complications
perioperatively. This includes patients who are unable to
achieve four metabolic equivalents (METs), defined as
climbing two flights of stairs or walking four city blocks.
Achieving less than 4 METs indicates poor cardiac
reserve, and echocardiogram is indicated before
intermediate or major risk surgery. Diabetes,
,2|Page
hyperlipidemia, age, and the operation risk are not
reasons for preoperative echocardiography.
A 75-year-old man complains of severe rest pain in his
right leg. He has no pulse in the femoral artery or below
with an ABI index of .2, but no gangrene. He has pulses in
the left leg. His BP is 150/80 mmHg, pulse 60 bpm, RR 18
breaths/min. He is on clopidogrel (Plavix), a beta blocker,
and a statin. His EKG and echocardiogram show no acute
changes and his ejection fraction is 60%. Which of the
following medications should he receive the day of
surgery?
A. Beta blocker alone
B. Clopidogrel and statin
C. Beta blocker and statin
D. Beta blocker, statin, and low molecular weight heparin
E. ACE inhibitor, aspirin, and statin - Answers-D
Beta blockers and statins have been demonstrated to
lower cardiac risk and should be continued perioperatively.
Clopidogrel (Plavix) is difficult to reverse and should be
discontinued preoperatively if there is a risk of bleeding.
He should also receive low molecular weight heparin for
prophylaxis. There is no clear indication to add aspirin.
, 3|Page
A 65-year-old woman needs a mastectomy and
reconstruction for breast cancer. She had coronary artery
drug-eluting stents placed 14 months ago following a
STEMI. She takes warfarin for atrial fibrillation as well as
Plavix and aspirin. She has shortness of breath and ankle
edema without chest pain. There are bibasilar rales on
chest examination. She hasn't seen her cardiologist in 3
months. Which of the following is her major cardiac risk
factor, as determined by a Revised Cardiac Risk Index?
A. Atrial fibrillation
B. Congestive heart failure
C. Coronary artery disease
D. The presence of drug-eluting stents - Answers-B
Congestive heart failure is the major contributing factor to
post-operative major cardiac events. The risk of another
MI decreases after 6 months and has been treated with
stents, which no longer require immediate perioperative
anticoagulation.
A 78-year-old man is brought to your office in a wheelchair.
He says his abdominal wall hernia has been getting bigger
and wonders if he needs surgery. He looks thin and pale,
but in no distress. He is mildly hypertensive (150/90), had
