HESI DENTAL HYGIENE EXAM QUESTION &
ANSWERS 2026
1.Under which classification of gingival diseases and conditions is puberty-associated gingivitis
found? - correct answer Plaque-Induced Gingival diseases modified by systemic factors
2.A patient presents with a short, thick lingual frenum that results in limited tongue movement
affecting speech. Which is the most likely diagnosis of this condition? - correct answer
Ankyloglossia
3.When is tooth eruption complete? - correct answer Tooth has made contact with its
antagonists in opposing jaw
4.When does mixed dentition begin? - correct answer Eruption of first permanent tooth
5.How many succedaneous teeth are in permanent dentition? - correct answer 20
The junction of a buccal and lingual triangular ridge is a transverse ridge. The oblique ridge
of a maxillary molar is an example of a transverse ridge. - correct answer The first
statement is true and the second is false
6.Which factor makes aging enamel less susceptible to caries? - correct answer reduced
permeability
7.Which groove is the most identifying characteristic of a three-cusp mandibular second
premolar? - correct answer Distolingual
8.Which is true regarding the height of contour? - correct answer Greatest elevation of tooth
either incisocervically or occlusocervically
9.How many primary and permanent teeth are typically present in an eight yr old child? -
correct answer 14 primary; 10 permanent
10.Which describes the junction of two surfaces of a crown? - correct answer line angle
Which G.V. Black classification involves the proximal surfaces of anterior teeth including the
incised edge or angle? - correct answer IV
11.Which ridge is a unique characteristic of permanent maxillary molars? - correct answer
Oblique
12.Which division of the fifth cranial nerve innervates the temporomandibular joint? - correct
answer Mandibular
13.Facial paralysis can result from damage to the motor neurons of which cranial nerve? -
correct answer VII
14.Which is the target area for the inferior alveolar nerve block? - correct answer mandibular
,foramen on medial surface of mandible
15.Which salivary gland is encapsulated? - correct answer Sublingual
16.Which type of joint is the temporomandibular? - correct answer Synovial
17.Which peripheral nervous system and subdivision are responsible for a shutdown of
salivary gland secretion? - correct answer autonomic; sympathetic
18.estroyed enamel cannot reform since the cells that formed it no longer exist. Cavitated
enamel can repair itself by the incorporation of calcium and phosphate ions from saliva? -
correct answer First statement is true second statement is false
19.Which bacterium is most important in causing the progression of carious lesions? - correct
answer Aciduric
20.Anaerobe bacteria - correct answer grow only in the absence of oxygen
21.Which bacterial structure interferes with phagocytosis? - correct answer capsule
22.Which bacteria grow best in refrigerated conditions? - correct answer Psychrophils
23.Endotoxin is a virulence property of - correct answer gram-negative bacteria
24.When comparing viruses to bacteria, viruses - correct answer enter host cells before they
can multiply
25.Which is treated with nystatin? - correct answer Candidiasis
26.Which is detected in the blood within two months after successful immunization with the
hepatitis B vaccine? - correct answer Anti-HBs
27.Which hypersensitivity reaction is an allergy to the natural rubber latex in examination
gloves? - correct answer I
28.Which bacterial genus contains species that cause pneumatic fever, scarlet fever, and
pharyngitis? - correct answer Streptococcus
29.Each of the following is an antituberculin agent EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?
A. Ethambutol
B. Isoniazid
C. Nizoral
D. Rifampin - correct answer C. Nizoral
30.Which condition warrants antibiotic premedication? - correct answer Repaired congenital
heart disease
, It is noted the medical history the patient has mitral valve prolapse, a stent, pneumatic heart
disease, and a renal dialysis shunt. For which condition does the patient require antibiotic
predication? - correct answer Renal dialysis shunt
31.A patient's prescription has the abbreviation "qid" meaning? - correct answer
take
medication four times a day
32.Which schedule of controlled substance is indicated when a prescription states
"NO
REFILLS" - correct answer schedule II controlled substance
33.Which vitamin deficiency results from long-term recreational abuse of nitrous
oxide? -
correct answer Cobalamin (vitamin B-12)
34.Each of the following is a calcium blocking agent EXCEPT one. Which one is the
EXCEPTION? - correct answer Propranolol (adrenergic blocking agent which reduces high blood
pressure)
35.Which food is a good source of vitamin K? - correct answer Kale!
36.milk is an excellent source of calcium; strawberries & sweet potatoes are rich in vitamin c
Which medication is administered to manage an acute asthma attack? - correct answer
Albuterol
37.Short acting bronchodilator results in an immediate response to an acute asthma attack
Lipitor is a/an - correct answer statin
(lowers cholesterol levels)
38.Consuming foods high in retinol will help prevent night blindness because vitamin D helps
absorb calcium. - correct answer Both the statement and reason are correct but not related.
Consuming foods high in retinol will help prevent night blindness. Vitamin D DOES help
absorb calcium.
39.Which meal lacks an excellent source of vitamin C? - correct answer Steak, brown rice,
and
corn
Although corn has some vitamin C, it is not an excellent source as provided from broccoli,
strawberries, and cantaloupe
40.Which element is found in proteins and not carbohydrates? - correct answer Iron
Nitrogen is found in protein, but not carbohydrates. Iron is not an element found in either
nutrient. Carbon and oxygen are found in carbohydrates and proteins.
41.Some vitamin K requirements are met through the synthesis of - correct answer intestinal
ANSWERS 2026
1.Under which classification of gingival diseases and conditions is puberty-associated gingivitis
found? - correct answer Plaque-Induced Gingival diseases modified by systemic factors
2.A patient presents with a short, thick lingual frenum that results in limited tongue movement
affecting speech. Which is the most likely diagnosis of this condition? - correct answer
Ankyloglossia
3.When is tooth eruption complete? - correct answer Tooth has made contact with its
antagonists in opposing jaw
4.When does mixed dentition begin? - correct answer Eruption of first permanent tooth
5.How many succedaneous teeth are in permanent dentition? - correct answer 20
The junction of a buccal and lingual triangular ridge is a transverse ridge. The oblique ridge
of a maxillary molar is an example of a transverse ridge. - correct answer The first
statement is true and the second is false
6.Which factor makes aging enamel less susceptible to caries? - correct answer reduced
permeability
7.Which groove is the most identifying characteristic of a three-cusp mandibular second
premolar? - correct answer Distolingual
8.Which is true regarding the height of contour? - correct answer Greatest elevation of tooth
either incisocervically or occlusocervically
9.How many primary and permanent teeth are typically present in an eight yr old child? -
correct answer 14 primary; 10 permanent
10.Which describes the junction of two surfaces of a crown? - correct answer line angle
Which G.V. Black classification involves the proximal surfaces of anterior teeth including the
incised edge or angle? - correct answer IV
11.Which ridge is a unique characteristic of permanent maxillary molars? - correct answer
Oblique
12.Which division of the fifth cranial nerve innervates the temporomandibular joint? - correct
answer Mandibular
13.Facial paralysis can result from damage to the motor neurons of which cranial nerve? -
correct answer VII
14.Which is the target area for the inferior alveolar nerve block? - correct answer mandibular
,foramen on medial surface of mandible
15.Which salivary gland is encapsulated? - correct answer Sublingual
16.Which type of joint is the temporomandibular? - correct answer Synovial
17.Which peripheral nervous system and subdivision are responsible for a shutdown of
salivary gland secretion? - correct answer autonomic; sympathetic
18.estroyed enamel cannot reform since the cells that formed it no longer exist. Cavitated
enamel can repair itself by the incorporation of calcium and phosphate ions from saliva? -
correct answer First statement is true second statement is false
19.Which bacterium is most important in causing the progression of carious lesions? - correct
answer Aciduric
20.Anaerobe bacteria - correct answer grow only in the absence of oxygen
21.Which bacterial structure interferes with phagocytosis? - correct answer capsule
22.Which bacteria grow best in refrigerated conditions? - correct answer Psychrophils
23.Endotoxin is a virulence property of - correct answer gram-negative bacteria
24.When comparing viruses to bacteria, viruses - correct answer enter host cells before they
can multiply
25.Which is treated with nystatin? - correct answer Candidiasis
26.Which is detected in the blood within two months after successful immunization with the
hepatitis B vaccine? - correct answer Anti-HBs
27.Which hypersensitivity reaction is an allergy to the natural rubber latex in examination
gloves? - correct answer I
28.Which bacterial genus contains species that cause pneumatic fever, scarlet fever, and
pharyngitis? - correct answer Streptococcus
29.Each of the following is an antituberculin agent EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?
A. Ethambutol
B. Isoniazid
C. Nizoral
D. Rifampin - correct answer C. Nizoral
30.Which condition warrants antibiotic premedication? - correct answer Repaired congenital
heart disease
, It is noted the medical history the patient has mitral valve prolapse, a stent, pneumatic heart
disease, and a renal dialysis shunt. For which condition does the patient require antibiotic
predication? - correct answer Renal dialysis shunt
31.A patient's prescription has the abbreviation "qid" meaning? - correct answer
take
medication four times a day
32.Which schedule of controlled substance is indicated when a prescription states
"NO
REFILLS" - correct answer schedule II controlled substance
33.Which vitamin deficiency results from long-term recreational abuse of nitrous
oxide? -
correct answer Cobalamin (vitamin B-12)
34.Each of the following is a calcium blocking agent EXCEPT one. Which one is the
EXCEPTION? - correct answer Propranolol (adrenergic blocking agent which reduces high blood
pressure)
35.Which food is a good source of vitamin K? - correct answer Kale!
36.milk is an excellent source of calcium; strawberries & sweet potatoes are rich in vitamin c
Which medication is administered to manage an acute asthma attack? - correct answer
Albuterol
37.Short acting bronchodilator results in an immediate response to an acute asthma attack
Lipitor is a/an - correct answer statin
(lowers cholesterol levels)
38.Consuming foods high in retinol will help prevent night blindness because vitamin D helps
absorb calcium. - correct answer Both the statement and reason are correct but not related.
Consuming foods high in retinol will help prevent night blindness. Vitamin D DOES help
absorb calcium.
39.Which meal lacks an excellent source of vitamin C? - correct answer Steak, brown rice,
and
corn
Although corn has some vitamin C, it is not an excellent source as provided from broccoli,
strawberries, and cantaloupe
40.Which element is found in proteins and not carbohydrates? - correct answer Iron
Nitrogen is found in protein, but not carbohydrates. Iron is not an element found in either
nutrient. Carbon and oxygen are found in carbohydrates and proteins.
41.Some vitamin K requirements are met through the synthesis of - correct answer intestinal
