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MQF Exam UPDATED ACTUAL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS

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MQF Exam UPDATED ACTUAL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS 1. RADIATION HAZARDS. If IFF MASTER mode is selected to NORM the transponder transmits when interrogated, and when the squitter is active. During transmission the minimum personnel safety distance is _____ feet from either antenna. Minimum electro explosive device personnel safety distance is distance is 25 feet. - CORRECT ANSWER B. 10 Feet 2. TAKEOFF AND LANDING DATA CARDS. Re-compute applicable takeoff data if any weather or configuration change occurs greater than as follows: - CORRECT ANSWER A. Runway Temp. 5°C Press. Alt. 500 feet Gross Wt. 5,000 pounds CG 0.5% 3. FLIGHT ENGINEER STATION: Do not operate radios until cabin temperature is below - CORRECT ANSWER C. 100 F 4. BEFORE START. Do not transmit on VHF-AM radio on ground unless personnel are a minimum of ______ from radiating antennas. - CORRECT ANSWER B. 10 Feet 5. STARTING ENGINES. If ground crew has not called "rotation" and N1 RPM is not indicated by 25% N2: - CORRECT ANSWER A. release start switch and investigate cause before attempting another start. 6. STARTING ENGINES. If a blast deflector is not available then clear behind the airplane a minimum of _____ feet for thrust settings below 1.2 EPR or ______ feet minimum for thrust settings above 1.2 EPR. - CORRECT ANSWER C. 200/500

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MQF Exam UPDATED ACTUAL QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT ANSWERS
1. RADIATION HAZARDS. If IFF MASTER mode is selected to NORM the transponder
transmits when interrogated, and when the squitter is active. During transmission the
minimum personnel safety distance is _____ feet from either antenna. Minimum electro-
explosive device personnel safety distance is distance is 25 feet. - CORRECT
ANSWER B. 10 Feet



2. TAKEOFF AND LANDING DATA CARDS. Re-compute applicable takeoff data if any
weather or configuration change occurs greater than as follows: - CORRECT
ANSWER A. Runway Temp. 5°C

Press. Alt. 500 feet

Gross Wt. 5,000 pounds

CG 0.5%



3. FLIGHT ENGINEER STATION: Do not operate radios until cabin temperature is below -
CORRECT ANSWER C. 100 F



4. BEFORE START. Do not transmit on VHF-AM radio on ground unless personnel are a
minimum of ______ from radiating antennas. - CORRECT ANSWER B. 10 Feet



5. STARTING ENGINES. If ground crew has not called "rotation" and N1 RPM is not
indicated by 25% N2: - CORRECT ANSWER A. release start switch and investigate
cause before attempting another start.



6. STARTING ENGINES. If a blast deflector is not available then clear behind the airplane a
minimum of _____ feet for thrust settings below 1.2 EPR or ______ feet minimum for thrust
settings above 1.2 EPR. - CORRECT ANSWER C. 200/500



7. TAKEOFF. At aft CG (_____ or greater) and light weights (under ______ pounds),
slippery surfaces cause ineffective nose wheel steering. Make a rolling takeoff with slow,
steady thrust application as speed increases. If nose pitches up and nose wheel rises off the

,ground, _________. - CORRECT ANSWER C. 30% / 230,000 / reduce thrust slowly,
lowering nose gently, then reapply thrust slowly



8. FOUR-ENGINE TAKEOFF and DEPARTURE SPEEDS and flap settings are: -
CORRECT ANSWER A. CLOSE-IN OBSTACLE: V2 + 10 (Flaps 14)

OBSTACLE: V2 + 55 (Flaps Up)

BELOW 10,000: 250
DEPARTURE: 280 to .70M



9. ROTATION AND LIFTOFF. If over-rotation should occur... - CORRECT
ANSWER B. lower the nose smoothly to 8 degrees and continue the takeoff



10. TCAS. All corrective RA responses, that is, those requiring a change in vertical flight
path, must be hand flown. - CORRECT ANSWER A. True



11. RVSM OPERATION. The following equipment failures will be reported to ATC while
operating in RVSM airspace: - CORRECT ANSWER A. Greater than 200 feet altitude
difference between pilots' altimeters

B. Loss of both altitude alerters.

C. Failure of the autopilot or failure of ALT HOLD, or non-temporary disengagement of
altitude hold, such as for wide area turbulence.

D. Failure of Mode 3A or C.

E. All of the above. <----


12. LANDING. DO NOT attempt to takeoff (go around) once the airplane is on the runway
and speed brakes are deployed. - CORRECT ANSWER A. True



13. BOUNCE RECOVERY. Acceleration to TRT can take as much as _______ seconds. If a
hard, high bounce occurs, excessive runway is used, and a go-around is considered
mandatory, you should _________. - CORRECT ANSWER B. 10 seconds; initially
advance throttles to approximately vertical, then advance to go- around thrust. Anticipate a
second touchdown.

, 14. TOUCH and GO LANDINGS. On a wet runway, if an engine failure is recognized at a
speed below VREF - 10 knots... - CORRECT ANSWER B. the airplane must be
stopped.



15. AFTER LANDING. If runway is covered by slush or snow and airplane is cold soaked or
temperature is near or below freezing, do not retract flaps above __ until ground crew verify
jackscrews are free of ice and/or snow. - CORRECT ANSWER B. 25



16. ENGINE FAILURE or FIRE. Fire in the _________ does NOT energize the fire warning
system. For tailpipe fire _______ to blow out the fire. - CORRECT ANSWER A.
engine tailpipe / motor the engine



17. ENGINE FAILURE or FIRE. After setting affected engine BLEED AIR switch to OFF, if
the firewall shutoff and/or engine bleed valve fails to close: - CORRECT ANSWER C.
Close the wing isolation valve for the affected wing.



18. SF6 LEAK. If SF6 is inadvertently inhaled, ____________ and __________. -
CORRECT ANSWER B. place crewmember's head lower than lungs / provide 100%
oxygen



19. GROUND EVACUATION. When opening entry or galley doors after emergency landing
or ditching: - CORRECT ANSWER A. stop when door handle is in vertical position
and check for possible entry of fire, smoke, or water

B. if possible, choose another exit if fire, smoke or water enter at top or bottom of door.

C. jump far enough onto the slide to clear the door sill.

D. all the above. <-------


20. PILOT WINDOW EXIT. Ensure the strap is securely fastened. The escape strap is
checked for full extension by: - CORRECT ANSWER C. ensuring the green band on
the strap is at the window sill.

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