NR 509 CHAMBERLAIN TESTS
COMPILATION BUNDLE EXAMINATION
TEST 2026 QUESTIONS WITH SOLUTIONS
GRADED A+
⩥ A 22-year-old advertising copywriter presents for evaluation of joint
pain. The pain is new,
located in the wrists and fingers bilaterally, with some subjective fever.
The patient denies a
rash; she also denies recent travel or camping activities. She has a family
history significant for
rheumatoid arthritis. Based on this information, which of the following
pathologic processes
would be the most correct?
A) Infectious
B) Inflammatory
C) Hematologic
D) Traumatic. Answer: B) Inflammatory
The description is most consistent with an inflammatory process,
although all the other etiologies should be considered. Lyme disease is
an infection which commonly causes
,arthritis, hemophilia is a hematologic condition which can cause
bleeding in the joints, and trauma can obviously cause joint pain.
⩥ A 47-year-old contractor presents for evaluation of neck pain, which
has been intermittent for several years. He normally takes over-the-
counter medications to ease the pain, but this time they haven't worked
as well and he still has discomfort. He recently wallpapered the entire
second floor in his house, which caused him great discomfort. The pain
resolved with rest. He denies fever, chills, rash, upper respiratory
symptoms, trauma, or injury to the neck. Based on this description, what
is the most likely pathologic process?
A) Infectious
B) Neoplastic
C) Degenerative
D) Traumatic. Answer: C) Degenerative
The description is most consistent with degenerative arthritis in the neck.
The
patient has had intermittent symptoms and the questions asked to elicit
pertinent negative and
positive findings are negative for infectious, traumatic, or neoplastic
disease.
,⩥ A 15-year-old high school sophomore comes to the clinic for
evaluation of a 3-week history
of sneezing; itchy, watery eyes; clear nasal discharge; ear pain; and
nonproductive cough. Which
is the most likely pathologic process?
A) Infection
B) Inflammation
C) Allergic
D) Vascular. Answer: C) Allergic
This description is most consistent with allergic rhinitis.
⩥ A 19-year old-college student presents to the emergency room with
fever, headache, and
neck pain/stiffness. She is concerned about the possibility of
meningococcal meningitis.
Several of her dorm mates have been vaccinated, but she hasn't been.
Which of the following
physical examination descriptions is most consistent with meningitis?
A) Head is normocephalic and atraumatic, fundi with sharp discs, neck
supple with full range
of motion
, B) Head is normocephalic and atraumatic, fundi with sharp discs, neck
with paraspinous
muscle spasm and limited range of motion to the right
C) Head is normocephalic and atraumatic, fundi with blurred disc
margins, neck tender to
palpation, unable to perform range of motion
D) Head is normocephalic and atraumatic, fundi with blurred disc
margins, neck supple with
full range of motion. Answer: C) Head is normocephalic and atraumatic,
fundi with blurred disc margins, neck tender to
palpation, unable to perform range of motion
Blurred disc margins are consistent with papilledema, and neck
tenderness and lack of range of motion are consistent with neck
stiffness, which in this scenario is likely to be caused
by meningeal inflammation. Kernig's and Brudzinski's signs are also
helpful in testing for meningeal irritation on exam.
⩥ A 37-year-old nurse comes for evaluation of colicky right upper
quadrant abdominal pain. The pain is associated with nausea and
vomiting and occurs 1 to 2 hours after eating greasy foods. Which one of
the following physical examination descriptions would be most
consistent with the diagnosis of cholecystitis?
COMPILATION BUNDLE EXAMINATION
TEST 2026 QUESTIONS WITH SOLUTIONS
GRADED A+
⩥ A 22-year-old advertising copywriter presents for evaluation of joint
pain. The pain is new,
located in the wrists and fingers bilaterally, with some subjective fever.
The patient denies a
rash; she also denies recent travel or camping activities. She has a family
history significant for
rheumatoid arthritis. Based on this information, which of the following
pathologic processes
would be the most correct?
A) Infectious
B) Inflammatory
C) Hematologic
D) Traumatic. Answer: B) Inflammatory
The description is most consistent with an inflammatory process,
although all the other etiologies should be considered. Lyme disease is
an infection which commonly causes
,arthritis, hemophilia is a hematologic condition which can cause
bleeding in the joints, and trauma can obviously cause joint pain.
⩥ A 47-year-old contractor presents for evaluation of neck pain, which
has been intermittent for several years. He normally takes over-the-
counter medications to ease the pain, but this time they haven't worked
as well and he still has discomfort. He recently wallpapered the entire
second floor in his house, which caused him great discomfort. The pain
resolved with rest. He denies fever, chills, rash, upper respiratory
symptoms, trauma, or injury to the neck. Based on this description, what
is the most likely pathologic process?
A) Infectious
B) Neoplastic
C) Degenerative
D) Traumatic. Answer: C) Degenerative
The description is most consistent with degenerative arthritis in the neck.
The
patient has had intermittent symptoms and the questions asked to elicit
pertinent negative and
positive findings are negative for infectious, traumatic, or neoplastic
disease.
,⩥ A 15-year-old high school sophomore comes to the clinic for
evaluation of a 3-week history
of sneezing; itchy, watery eyes; clear nasal discharge; ear pain; and
nonproductive cough. Which
is the most likely pathologic process?
A) Infection
B) Inflammation
C) Allergic
D) Vascular. Answer: C) Allergic
This description is most consistent with allergic rhinitis.
⩥ A 19-year old-college student presents to the emergency room with
fever, headache, and
neck pain/stiffness. She is concerned about the possibility of
meningococcal meningitis.
Several of her dorm mates have been vaccinated, but she hasn't been.
Which of the following
physical examination descriptions is most consistent with meningitis?
A) Head is normocephalic and atraumatic, fundi with sharp discs, neck
supple with full range
of motion
, B) Head is normocephalic and atraumatic, fundi with sharp discs, neck
with paraspinous
muscle spasm and limited range of motion to the right
C) Head is normocephalic and atraumatic, fundi with blurred disc
margins, neck tender to
palpation, unable to perform range of motion
D) Head is normocephalic and atraumatic, fundi with blurred disc
margins, neck supple with
full range of motion. Answer: C) Head is normocephalic and atraumatic,
fundi with blurred disc margins, neck tender to
palpation, unable to perform range of motion
Blurred disc margins are consistent with papilledema, and neck
tenderness and lack of range of motion are consistent with neck
stiffness, which in this scenario is likely to be caused
by meningeal inflammation. Kernig's and Brudzinski's signs are also
helpful in testing for meningeal irritation on exam.
⩥ A 37-year-old nurse comes for evaluation of colicky right upper
quadrant abdominal pain. The pain is associated with nausea and
vomiting and occurs 1 to 2 hours after eating greasy foods. Which one of
the following physical examination descriptions would be most
consistent with the diagnosis of cholecystitis?
