SOUTH AFRICAN AIR LAW PPL EXAM SCRIPT
2026
◉ 4.2.4 Describe the criteria for the fit and proper person test, as
laid down in CA Act 1990 s10.. Answer: Director will assess:
a) compliance history with transport safety
b) related experience in transport industry
c) knowledge of application civil aviation system regulatory
requirements
d) hx of physical or mental health or serious behavioral problems
e) conviction for transport safety offence and if it was in NZ
◉ 4.2.6 Describe the duties of the pilot-in-command, as laid down in
CA Act 1990 s13 and 13A.. Answer: a) be responsible for safe
operation of aircraft in flight, the safety and well being of all pax,
crew and cargo
b) have final authority to control the aircraft while in command and
for maintenance of discipline by all persons on board
c) Be responsible for compliance with requirements in the Act
subject to 13A
◉ 4.2.8 Describe the responsibilities of a licence holder with respect
to changes in their medical condition, as laid down in CA Act 1990
S27.. Answer: If a license holder is aware of, or suspect change in
,medical condition, must advise the DIRECTOR and may not exercise
privileges
◉ 4.2.10 Describe the responsibilities of a licence holder with
respect to the surrender of a medical certificate as laid down in CA
Act 1990 S27.. Answer: A person who had medical cert revoked,
withdrawn or suspended must surrender medical cert to 1) Director,
2) person authorised by the director 3) constable
◉ 4.2.12 Describe the responsibilities of a licence holder with
respect to safety offences, as laid down in CA Act 1990 ss43 and 44..
Answer: 43 Endangerment caused by av doc holder: fine up to $10k
or prison up to 12 months, corp $100k
43A Careless manner $7k or corp$35k
44 Dangerous activity involving aircraft, aeronautical product or
aviation related service
12 months fine $10k
$100k fine for body corp
◉ Accident. Answer:
◉ Act. Answer: Civil aviation act 1990
,◉ aerobatic flight;. Answer: (1) an intentional manoeuvre in which
the aircraft is in sustained inverted flight or is rolled from upright to
inverted or from inverted to upright position; or (2) manoeuvres
such as rolls, loops, spins, upward vertical flight culminating in a
stall turn, hammerhead or whip stall, or a combination of such
manoeuvres:
◉ Aerodrome. Answer: (1) means any defined area of land or water
intended or designed to be used either wholly or partly for the
landing, departure, and surface movement of aircraft; and (2)
includes any buildings, installations, and equipment on or adjacent
to any such area used in connection with the aerodrome or its
administration:
◉ aerodrome elevation;. Answer: The elevation of the highest point
of the landing area
◉ aerodrome operational area;. Answer: Aerodrome operational
area means— (1) the movement area at an aerodrome and its
associated strips and safety areas; and (2) any ground installation or
facility provided at an aerodrome for the safety of aircraft
operations:
◉ aerodrome traffic circuit;. Answer: Aerodrome traffic means— (1)
all traffic on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome; and (2) all
aircraft flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome:
, ◉ aeronautical information circular;. Answer: means a notice
containing information that— (1) does not qualify for the
origination of a NOTAM or for inclusion in the AIPNZ; and (2) relates
to flight safety, air navigation, technical, administrative or legislative
matters:
◉ aeronautical information publication (AIP);. Answer: means a
publication issued by, or with the authority of, a State and containing
aeronautical information of a lasting character essential to air
navigation:
◉ AIP supplement. Answer: AIP Supplement means temporary
changes to the information contained in the AIPNZ that are
published by means of special pages:
◉ air traffic control (ATC) service;. Answer: means a service
provided for the purposes of—
(1) preventing collisions— (i) between aircraft; and (ii) between
aircraft and obstructions on any manoeuvring area; and (2)
expediting and maintaining a safe and efficient flow of air traffic:
◉ airworthiness certificate;. Answer: (1) for a New Zealand
registered aircraft, an airworthiness certificate issued by the
Director under Part 21, Subpart H; and (2) for a foreign registered
2026
◉ 4.2.4 Describe the criteria for the fit and proper person test, as
laid down in CA Act 1990 s10.. Answer: Director will assess:
a) compliance history with transport safety
b) related experience in transport industry
c) knowledge of application civil aviation system regulatory
requirements
d) hx of physical or mental health or serious behavioral problems
e) conviction for transport safety offence and if it was in NZ
◉ 4.2.6 Describe the duties of the pilot-in-command, as laid down in
CA Act 1990 s13 and 13A.. Answer: a) be responsible for safe
operation of aircraft in flight, the safety and well being of all pax,
crew and cargo
b) have final authority to control the aircraft while in command and
for maintenance of discipline by all persons on board
c) Be responsible for compliance with requirements in the Act
subject to 13A
◉ 4.2.8 Describe the responsibilities of a licence holder with respect
to changes in their medical condition, as laid down in CA Act 1990
S27.. Answer: If a license holder is aware of, or suspect change in
,medical condition, must advise the DIRECTOR and may not exercise
privileges
◉ 4.2.10 Describe the responsibilities of a licence holder with
respect to the surrender of a medical certificate as laid down in CA
Act 1990 S27.. Answer: A person who had medical cert revoked,
withdrawn or suspended must surrender medical cert to 1) Director,
2) person authorised by the director 3) constable
◉ 4.2.12 Describe the responsibilities of a licence holder with
respect to safety offences, as laid down in CA Act 1990 ss43 and 44..
Answer: 43 Endangerment caused by av doc holder: fine up to $10k
or prison up to 12 months, corp $100k
43A Careless manner $7k or corp$35k
44 Dangerous activity involving aircraft, aeronautical product or
aviation related service
12 months fine $10k
$100k fine for body corp
◉ Accident. Answer:
◉ Act. Answer: Civil aviation act 1990
,◉ aerobatic flight;. Answer: (1) an intentional manoeuvre in which
the aircraft is in sustained inverted flight or is rolled from upright to
inverted or from inverted to upright position; or (2) manoeuvres
such as rolls, loops, spins, upward vertical flight culminating in a
stall turn, hammerhead or whip stall, or a combination of such
manoeuvres:
◉ Aerodrome. Answer: (1) means any defined area of land or water
intended or designed to be used either wholly or partly for the
landing, departure, and surface movement of aircraft; and (2)
includes any buildings, installations, and equipment on or adjacent
to any such area used in connection with the aerodrome or its
administration:
◉ aerodrome elevation;. Answer: The elevation of the highest point
of the landing area
◉ aerodrome operational area;. Answer: Aerodrome operational
area means— (1) the movement area at an aerodrome and its
associated strips and safety areas; and (2) any ground installation or
facility provided at an aerodrome for the safety of aircraft
operations:
◉ aerodrome traffic circuit;. Answer: Aerodrome traffic means— (1)
all traffic on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome; and (2) all
aircraft flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome:
, ◉ aeronautical information circular;. Answer: means a notice
containing information that— (1) does not qualify for the
origination of a NOTAM or for inclusion in the AIPNZ; and (2) relates
to flight safety, air navigation, technical, administrative or legislative
matters:
◉ aeronautical information publication (AIP);. Answer: means a
publication issued by, or with the authority of, a State and containing
aeronautical information of a lasting character essential to air
navigation:
◉ AIP supplement. Answer: AIP Supplement means temporary
changes to the information contained in the AIPNZ that are
published by means of special pages:
◉ air traffic control (ATC) service;. Answer: means a service
provided for the purposes of—
(1) preventing collisions— (i) between aircraft; and (ii) between
aircraft and obstructions on any manoeuvring area; and (2)
expediting and maintaining a safe and efficient flow of air traffic:
◉ airworthiness certificate;. Answer: (1) for a New Zealand
registered aircraft, an airworthiness certificate issued by the
Director under Part 21, Subpart H; and (2) for a foreign registered
