NUR 355 Exam 3 Study Guide Questions and Answers | 2026 Update | 100% Correct - Arizona College.
1. When is oxygen therapy indicated?
Answer: PaO₂ < 60 mmHg or SaO₂ < 90%
2. Which patients require extreme caution with oxygen therapy?
Answer: Patients with chronic hypercapnia (e.g., COPD)
3. What is ventilation?
Answer: Movement of air in and out of the lungs
4. What is perfusion?
Answer: Gas exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide at the alveolar-capillary membrane
5. What is oxygenation?
Answer: Passive diffusion of oxygen from alveoli to blood and tissues
6. What is the function of surfactant?
Answer: Reduces surface tension to prevent alveolar collapse
7. What does lung compliance describe?
Answer: Ease of lung expansion
8. What is hypoxia?
Answer: Low oxygen levels in tissues
9. What is hypoxemia?
Answer: Low oxygen levels in the blood (PaO₂ < 60 or SaO₂ < 90%)
10. What is dyspnea?
Answer: Subjective feeling of difficulty breathing
Noninvasive Oxygen Delivery
11. Which device delivers 24–44% oxygen and is most comfortable?
Answer: Nasal cannula
12. Which mask delivers 40–60% oxygen and is used short-term?
Answer: Simple face mask
13. Which device delivers 50–75% oxygen and has a reservoir bag?
Answer: Partial rebreather mask
14. Which mask delivers up to 90% oxygen and prevents CO₂ rebreathing?
Answer: Non-rebreather mask
15. Which oxygen device provides the most accurate FiO₂ and is preferred for COPD?
Answer: Venturi mask
, 16. What must be maintained with rebreather masks?
Answer: Reservoir bag ⅓–½ full during inspiration
Complications of Oxygen Therapy
17. What defines oxygen toxicity?
Answer: FiO₂ ≥ 50% for more than 24–48 hours
18. Which patients are at highest risk for oxygen toxicity?
Answer: COPD patients
19. What is a pulmonary embolism (PE)?
Answer: Obstruction of pulmonary arteries by a clot or other material
20. Classic signs of acute PE?
Answer: Sudden dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, tachypnea
21. What causes a ventilation–perfusion (V/Q) mismatch in PE?
Answer: Blocked blood flow to ventilated alveoli
22. What is a pneumothorax?
Answer: Air in the pleural cavity
23. Why is a chest x-ray ordered after tracheotomy?
Answer: To verify placement and assess for pneumothorax
Invasive Airway Management
24. How long should an intubation attempt last?
Answer: No longer than 15–30 seconds
25. How is endotracheal tube placement confirmed?
Answer: End-tidal CO₂ detection, bilateral breath sounds, chest x-ray
26. What does a negative end-tidal CO₂ indicate?
Answer: Esophageal intubation
27. Major complications of endotracheal intubation?
Answer: Aspiration, infection, unplanned extubation
28. When is a tracheostomy indicated?
Answer: Mechanical ventilation longer than 7–14 days
29. What is crepitus around a tracheostomy site?
Answer: Subcutaneous emphysema (medical emergency)
Respiratory Assessment (Ch. 23)
, 30. Why is accessory muscle use an emergency finding?
Answer: Indicates severe respiratory distress
31. What does stridor indicate?
Answer: Upper airway obstruction (emergency)
32. What does wheezing indicate?
Answer: Airway narrowing/bronchospasm
33. What do crackles (rales) indicate?
Answer: Fluid in alveoli
34. What diagnostic test evaluates lung volumes?
Answer: Pulmonary function tests (PFTs)
35. Normal ABG values (pH)?
Answer: 7.35–7.45
36. Normal PaCO₂ range?
Answer: 35–45 mmHg
37. Normal PaO₂ range?
Answer: 80–100 mmHg
38. What causes respiratory acidosis?
Answer: Hypoventilation
39. What causes respiratory alkalosis?
Answer: Hyperventilation
Metered-Dose Inhaler (MDI)
40. How long should the patient hold their breath after inhalation?
Answer: About 10 seconds
41. What must be done after corticosteroid inhaler use?
Answer: Rinse mouth
Smoking Cessation
42. First-line smoking cessation therapy?
Answer: Nicotine replacement or varenicline/bupropion
43. Second-line smoking cessation medications?
Answer: Clonidine, nortriptyline
Infectious Respiratory Disorders (Ch. 24)
, Influenza
44. Transmission precaution for influenza?
Answer: Droplet precautions
45. Incubation period for influenza?
Answer: 18–72 hours
46. When is oseltamivir (Tamiflu) effective?
Answer: Within 48 hours of symptom onset
Pneumonia
47. What is pneumonia?
Answer: Inflammation of lung parenchyma due to infection
48. Common signs of pneumonia?
Answer: Fever, cough, dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain
49. Which lab is elevated in pneumonia?
Answer: WBC and CRP
50. Which complication involves pus in the pleural space?
Answer: Empyema
51. What is atelectasis?
Answer: Partial or complete lung collapse
52. Key nursing interventions for pneumonia?
Answer: Incentive spirometry, fluids, antibiotics, early mobility
Tuberculosis
53. Causative organism of TB?
Answer: Mycobacterium tuberculosis
54. Transmission precaution for TB?
Answer: Airborne precautions
55. What test confirms TB infection?
Answer: Mantoux skin test or QuantiFERON
56. What drug regimen treats TB?
Answer: RIPE therapy
57. Why is DOT used in TB?
Answer: Prevent drug resistance and relapse
1. When is oxygen therapy indicated?
Answer: PaO₂ < 60 mmHg or SaO₂ < 90%
2. Which patients require extreme caution with oxygen therapy?
Answer: Patients with chronic hypercapnia (e.g., COPD)
3. What is ventilation?
Answer: Movement of air in and out of the lungs
4. What is perfusion?
Answer: Gas exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide at the alveolar-capillary membrane
5. What is oxygenation?
Answer: Passive diffusion of oxygen from alveoli to blood and tissues
6. What is the function of surfactant?
Answer: Reduces surface tension to prevent alveolar collapse
7. What does lung compliance describe?
Answer: Ease of lung expansion
8. What is hypoxia?
Answer: Low oxygen levels in tissues
9. What is hypoxemia?
Answer: Low oxygen levels in the blood (PaO₂ < 60 or SaO₂ < 90%)
10. What is dyspnea?
Answer: Subjective feeling of difficulty breathing
Noninvasive Oxygen Delivery
11. Which device delivers 24–44% oxygen and is most comfortable?
Answer: Nasal cannula
12. Which mask delivers 40–60% oxygen and is used short-term?
Answer: Simple face mask
13. Which device delivers 50–75% oxygen and has a reservoir bag?
Answer: Partial rebreather mask
14. Which mask delivers up to 90% oxygen and prevents CO₂ rebreathing?
Answer: Non-rebreather mask
15. Which oxygen device provides the most accurate FiO₂ and is preferred for COPD?
Answer: Venturi mask
, 16. What must be maintained with rebreather masks?
Answer: Reservoir bag ⅓–½ full during inspiration
Complications of Oxygen Therapy
17. What defines oxygen toxicity?
Answer: FiO₂ ≥ 50% for more than 24–48 hours
18. Which patients are at highest risk for oxygen toxicity?
Answer: COPD patients
19. What is a pulmonary embolism (PE)?
Answer: Obstruction of pulmonary arteries by a clot or other material
20. Classic signs of acute PE?
Answer: Sudden dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, tachypnea
21. What causes a ventilation–perfusion (V/Q) mismatch in PE?
Answer: Blocked blood flow to ventilated alveoli
22. What is a pneumothorax?
Answer: Air in the pleural cavity
23. Why is a chest x-ray ordered after tracheotomy?
Answer: To verify placement and assess for pneumothorax
Invasive Airway Management
24. How long should an intubation attempt last?
Answer: No longer than 15–30 seconds
25. How is endotracheal tube placement confirmed?
Answer: End-tidal CO₂ detection, bilateral breath sounds, chest x-ray
26. What does a negative end-tidal CO₂ indicate?
Answer: Esophageal intubation
27. Major complications of endotracheal intubation?
Answer: Aspiration, infection, unplanned extubation
28. When is a tracheostomy indicated?
Answer: Mechanical ventilation longer than 7–14 days
29. What is crepitus around a tracheostomy site?
Answer: Subcutaneous emphysema (medical emergency)
Respiratory Assessment (Ch. 23)
, 30. Why is accessory muscle use an emergency finding?
Answer: Indicates severe respiratory distress
31. What does stridor indicate?
Answer: Upper airway obstruction (emergency)
32. What does wheezing indicate?
Answer: Airway narrowing/bronchospasm
33. What do crackles (rales) indicate?
Answer: Fluid in alveoli
34. What diagnostic test evaluates lung volumes?
Answer: Pulmonary function tests (PFTs)
35. Normal ABG values (pH)?
Answer: 7.35–7.45
36. Normal PaCO₂ range?
Answer: 35–45 mmHg
37. Normal PaO₂ range?
Answer: 80–100 mmHg
38. What causes respiratory acidosis?
Answer: Hypoventilation
39. What causes respiratory alkalosis?
Answer: Hyperventilation
Metered-Dose Inhaler (MDI)
40. How long should the patient hold their breath after inhalation?
Answer: About 10 seconds
41. What must be done after corticosteroid inhaler use?
Answer: Rinse mouth
Smoking Cessation
42. First-line smoking cessation therapy?
Answer: Nicotine replacement or varenicline/bupropion
43. Second-line smoking cessation medications?
Answer: Clonidine, nortriptyline
Infectious Respiratory Disorders (Ch. 24)
, Influenza
44. Transmission precaution for influenza?
Answer: Droplet precautions
45. Incubation period for influenza?
Answer: 18–72 hours
46. When is oseltamivir (Tamiflu) effective?
Answer: Within 48 hours of symptom onset
Pneumonia
47. What is pneumonia?
Answer: Inflammation of lung parenchyma due to infection
48. Common signs of pneumonia?
Answer: Fever, cough, dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain
49. Which lab is elevated in pneumonia?
Answer: WBC and CRP
50. Which complication involves pus in the pleural space?
Answer: Empyema
51. What is atelectasis?
Answer: Partial or complete lung collapse
52. Key nursing interventions for pneumonia?
Answer: Incentive spirometry, fluids, antibiotics, early mobility
Tuberculosis
53. Causative organism of TB?
Answer: Mycobacterium tuberculosis
54. Transmission precaution for TB?
Answer: Airborne precautions
55. What test confirms TB infection?
Answer: Mantoux skin test or QuantiFERON
56. What drug regimen treats TB?
Answer: RIPE therapy
57. Why is DOT used in TB?
Answer: Prevent drug resistance and relapse
