NURSING 101 FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING EXAM 1 (2026/2027) | QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS GRADED A+
Nursing 101: Fundamentals of Nursing - Examination 1 | Core Domains: Nursing Profession & History,
Nursing Process & Critical Thinking, Legal & Ethical Foundations, Communication & Therapeutic
Relationships, Health Assessment Basics, Vital Signs & Normal Values, Documentation & Reporting,
and Safety & Infection Control Introduction | Foundational Nursing Course Focus | Introductory Course
Exam Format
Exam Structure
The Nursing 101 Fundamentals of Nursing Exam 1 for the 2026/2027 academic cycle is an 80-question,
multiple-choice question (MCQ) examination.
Introduction
This Nursing 101 Fundamentals of Nursing Exam 1 guide for the 2026/2027 cycle prepares students for
the initial assessment in the foundational nursing course. The content establishes the core theoretical and
professional basis of nursing practice, focusing on nursing history, the conceptual framework of the
nursing process, professional identity, and the ethical/legal context in which nurses provide care.
Answer Format
All correct answers and foundational concepts must be presented in bold and green, followed by
detailed rationales that define key nursing terminology, explain historical influences, differentiate nursing
theorists, apply ethical principles (autonomy, beneficence, etc.), and introduce the steps of the nursing
process and basic communication techniques.
Questions (80 Total)
1. Who is considered the founder of modern nursing?
A. Clara Barton
B. Florence Nightingale
C. Mary Eliza Mahoney
D. Lillian Wald
Rationale: Florence Nightingale revolutionized nursing during the Crimean War (1850s) by
emphasizing sanitation, data collection, and compassionate care. She established the first secular
nursing school in 1860. Clara Barton founded the American Red Cross; Mary Mahoney was the first
African American RN; Lillian Wald pioneered public health nursing.
2. The first step of the nursing process is:
A. Planning
B. Implementation
,C. Assessment
D. Evaluation
Rationale: The nursing process follows ADPIE: Assessment, Diagnosis, Planning, Implementation,
Evaluation. Assessment involves collecting subjective (patient-reported) and objective
(observable/measurable) data to form a complete database for clinical judgment.
3. A patient refuses a prescribed medication. The nurse’s best action is to:
A. Administer it when the patient is asleep
B. Respect the refusal, document it, and notify the provider
C. Convince the patient it’s necessary
D. Withhold all future medications
Rationale: Patients have the legal right to refuse treatment based on autonomy. The nurse must honor
this decision, document the refusal clearly (including time, medication, and patient’s statement), and
report to the RN or provider. Coercion violates ethical and legal standards.
4. Which statement demonstrates therapeutic communication?
A. “Don’t worry—everything will be fine.”
B. “You seem concerned. Would you like to talk about it?”
C. “I know exactly how you feel.”
D. “My aunt had the same thing.”
Rationale: Therapeutic communication uses open-ended questions, empathy, and active listening
without giving false reassurance, advice, or making assumptions. Option B validates feelings and
invites dialogue. Non-therapeutic responses block communication and minimize patient concerns.
5. Normal adult blood pressure is defined as:
A. <140/90 mm Hg
B. <120/<80 mm Hg
C. <130/85 mm Hg
D. <110/70 mm Hg
Rationale: Per ACC/AHA guidelines, normal blood pressure is <120/<80 mm Hg. Elevated is
120–129/<80; Stage 1 hypertension is 130–139/80–89. Accurate classification guides preventive
education and monitoring.
, 6. When documenting a patient’s fall, the nurse should:
A. Write “patient was clumsy”
B. Record objective facts: time, location, injuries observed, and patient statements
C. Omit details to avoid liability
D. Wait until the end of the shift
Rationale: Documentation must be factual, objective, timely, and nonjudgmental. Include what you
saw, heard, and did. Avoid labels like “clumsy.” Late or vague entries compromise legal defensibility
and patient safety. Incident reports are separate but clinical notes must reflect the event.
7. Proper hand hygiene when hands are visibly soiled requires:
A. Alcohol-based hand sanitizer
B. Soap and water for at least 20 seconds
C. Rinsing with water only
D. Wearing gloves instead
Rationale: CDC guidelines require soap and water when hands are visibly soiled or after caring for
patients with C. difficile. Hand sanitizer is acceptable for routine care when hands are not soiled. Gloves
do not replace hand hygiene; hands must be cleaned before gloving and after removal.
8. The ethical principle of “doing good” is called:
A. Autonomy
B. Beneficence
C. Justice
D. Nonmaleficence
Rationale: Beneficence means acting in the patient’s best interest. Autonomy = self-determination;
nonmaleficence = “do no harm”; justice = fairness in resource allocation. These four principles guide
ethical decision-making in nursing.
9. A normal adult respiratory rate is:
A. 8–12 breaths per minute
B. 12–20 breaths per minute
C. 20–30 breaths per minute
CORRECT ANSWERS GRADED A+
Nursing 101: Fundamentals of Nursing - Examination 1 | Core Domains: Nursing Profession & History,
Nursing Process & Critical Thinking, Legal & Ethical Foundations, Communication & Therapeutic
Relationships, Health Assessment Basics, Vital Signs & Normal Values, Documentation & Reporting,
and Safety & Infection Control Introduction | Foundational Nursing Course Focus | Introductory Course
Exam Format
Exam Structure
The Nursing 101 Fundamentals of Nursing Exam 1 for the 2026/2027 academic cycle is an 80-question,
multiple-choice question (MCQ) examination.
Introduction
This Nursing 101 Fundamentals of Nursing Exam 1 guide for the 2026/2027 cycle prepares students for
the initial assessment in the foundational nursing course. The content establishes the core theoretical and
professional basis of nursing practice, focusing on nursing history, the conceptual framework of the
nursing process, professional identity, and the ethical/legal context in which nurses provide care.
Answer Format
All correct answers and foundational concepts must be presented in bold and green, followed by
detailed rationales that define key nursing terminology, explain historical influences, differentiate nursing
theorists, apply ethical principles (autonomy, beneficence, etc.), and introduce the steps of the nursing
process and basic communication techniques.
Questions (80 Total)
1. Who is considered the founder of modern nursing?
A. Clara Barton
B. Florence Nightingale
C. Mary Eliza Mahoney
D. Lillian Wald
Rationale: Florence Nightingale revolutionized nursing during the Crimean War (1850s) by
emphasizing sanitation, data collection, and compassionate care. She established the first secular
nursing school in 1860. Clara Barton founded the American Red Cross; Mary Mahoney was the first
African American RN; Lillian Wald pioneered public health nursing.
2. The first step of the nursing process is:
A. Planning
B. Implementation
,C. Assessment
D. Evaluation
Rationale: The nursing process follows ADPIE: Assessment, Diagnosis, Planning, Implementation,
Evaluation. Assessment involves collecting subjective (patient-reported) and objective
(observable/measurable) data to form a complete database for clinical judgment.
3. A patient refuses a prescribed medication. The nurse’s best action is to:
A. Administer it when the patient is asleep
B. Respect the refusal, document it, and notify the provider
C. Convince the patient it’s necessary
D. Withhold all future medications
Rationale: Patients have the legal right to refuse treatment based on autonomy. The nurse must honor
this decision, document the refusal clearly (including time, medication, and patient’s statement), and
report to the RN or provider. Coercion violates ethical and legal standards.
4. Which statement demonstrates therapeutic communication?
A. “Don’t worry—everything will be fine.”
B. “You seem concerned. Would you like to talk about it?”
C. “I know exactly how you feel.”
D. “My aunt had the same thing.”
Rationale: Therapeutic communication uses open-ended questions, empathy, and active listening
without giving false reassurance, advice, or making assumptions. Option B validates feelings and
invites dialogue. Non-therapeutic responses block communication and minimize patient concerns.
5. Normal adult blood pressure is defined as:
A. <140/90 mm Hg
B. <120/<80 mm Hg
C. <130/85 mm Hg
D. <110/70 mm Hg
Rationale: Per ACC/AHA guidelines, normal blood pressure is <120/<80 mm Hg. Elevated is
120–129/<80; Stage 1 hypertension is 130–139/80–89. Accurate classification guides preventive
education and monitoring.
, 6. When documenting a patient’s fall, the nurse should:
A. Write “patient was clumsy”
B. Record objective facts: time, location, injuries observed, and patient statements
C. Omit details to avoid liability
D. Wait until the end of the shift
Rationale: Documentation must be factual, objective, timely, and nonjudgmental. Include what you
saw, heard, and did. Avoid labels like “clumsy.” Late or vague entries compromise legal defensibility
and patient safety. Incident reports are separate but clinical notes must reflect the event.
7. Proper hand hygiene when hands are visibly soiled requires:
A. Alcohol-based hand sanitizer
B. Soap and water for at least 20 seconds
C. Rinsing with water only
D. Wearing gloves instead
Rationale: CDC guidelines require soap and water when hands are visibly soiled or after caring for
patients with C. difficile. Hand sanitizer is acceptable for routine care when hands are not soiled. Gloves
do not replace hand hygiene; hands must be cleaned before gloving and after removal.
8. The ethical principle of “doing good” is called:
A. Autonomy
B. Beneficence
C. Justice
D. Nonmaleficence
Rationale: Beneficence means acting in the patient’s best interest. Autonomy = self-determination;
nonmaleficence = “do no harm”; justice = fairness in resource allocation. These four principles guide
ethical decision-making in nursing.
9. A normal adult respiratory rate is:
A. 8–12 breaths per minute
B. 12–20 breaths per minute
C. 20–30 breaths per minute
