Wilkes NSG 526 Exam 1 Clinical Modalities
Adv. Psych Qs and Ans with Explanation,
Pass with Confidence
1. Which definition best describes a mental disorder?
A. A temporary emotional response to stress
B. A culturally inappropriate behavior
C. A clinically significant disturbance in cognition, emotion regulation, or behavior
D. A biological illness only
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: DSM-5 defines mental disorders as clinically significant disturbances reflecting
dysfunction in psychological, biological, or developmental processes, causing distress or
impairment.
2. Criteria offered as guidelines for making psychiatric diagnoses are called:
A. ICD codes
B. Diagnostic Criteria
C. Clinical pathways
D. Treatment algorithms
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Diagnostic criteria guide clinicians in identifying and classifying mental disorders.
3. When symptoms do not meet full criteria but cause impairment, which diagnostic
categories are used?
A. Provisional
B. Rule out
C. Other specified or unspecified
D. Differential
,Correct Answer: C
Rationale: DSM-5 allows “other specified” and “unspecified” diagnoses when full criteria are
not met but impairment exists.
4. When using “unspecified” diagnoses, the main diagnosis should correspond to:
A. The most severe disorder
B. The most chronic condition
C. The predominant symptoms
D. The medical diagnosis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The primary diagnosis reflects the most prominent clinical presentation.
5. Which coding system is used in the U.S. to document psychiatric diagnoses?
A. DSM-5 only
B. ICD-10-CM
C. CPT
D. SNOMED
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: ICD-10-CM is the official diagnostic coding system used in the U.S.
6. True or False: A psychiatric diagnosis automatically means treatment is required.
Correct Answer: False
Rationale: Treatment decisions depend on symptom severity, distress, and functional
impairment—not diagnosis alone.
7. A client reports sadness after the death of a pet but maintains normal functioning. How
should this be interpreted?
,A. Major depressive disorder
B. Maladaptive grief
C. Cultural incongruence
D. Normal response with no mental illness
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Absence of functional impairment indicates a normal emotional response.
8. When is a client considered at risk for mental illness?
A. Use of defense mechanisms
B. DSM-5 criteria unmet
C. Maladaptive stress responses interfering with functioning
D. Emotional expression
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Impairment plus maladaptive coping signals risk.
9. A client says, “I’m here for my heart, not my head.” Best nurse response?
A. “These are required questions.”
B. “Why are you upset?”
C. “Stress can affect physical health.”
D. “We can skip this section.”
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Educates while maintaining therapeutic rapport.
10. A child teases a peer he likes. Which defense mechanism is this?
A. Projection
B. Displacement
C. Reaction formation
D. Sublimation
, Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Reaction formation expresses opposite behavior to unwanted feelings.
11. A client says, “I don’t drink too much!” despite intoxication. Defense mechanism?
A. Rationalization
B. Projection
C. Denial
D. Regression
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Denial involves refusal to acknowledge reality.
12. Which statement about psychosis is most accurate?
A. Clients recognize symptoms
B. Clients experience little distress
C. Clients are reality-based
D. Clients seek treatment early
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Psychosis involves impaired insight; distress may be minimal.
13. DSM-5 defines mental disorder dysfunction as involving which processes?
A. Psychosocial only
B. Cognitive only
C. Psychological, biological, developmental
D. Environmental
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: DSM-5 emphasizes a biopsychosocial framework.
14. Which symptoms indicate anxiety? (Select all that apply)
Adv. Psych Qs and Ans with Explanation,
Pass with Confidence
1. Which definition best describes a mental disorder?
A. A temporary emotional response to stress
B. A culturally inappropriate behavior
C. A clinically significant disturbance in cognition, emotion regulation, or behavior
D. A biological illness only
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: DSM-5 defines mental disorders as clinically significant disturbances reflecting
dysfunction in psychological, biological, or developmental processes, causing distress or
impairment.
2. Criteria offered as guidelines for making psychiatric diagnoses are called:
A. ICD codes
B. Diagnostic Criteria
C. Clinical pathways
D. Treatment algorithms
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Diagnostic criteria guide clinicians in identifying and classifying mental disorders.
3. When symptoms do not meet full criteria but cause impairment, which diagnostic
categories are used?
A. Provisional
B. Rule out
C. Other specified or unspecified
D. Differential
,Correct Answer: C
Rationale: DSM-5 allows “other specified” and “unspecified” diagnoses when full criteria are
not met but impairment exists.
4. When using “unspecified” diagnoses, the main diagnosis should correspond to:
A. The most severe disorder
B. The most chronic condition
C. The predominant symptoms
D. The medical diagnosis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The primary diagnosis reflects the most prominent clinical presentation.
5. Which coding system is used in the U.S. to document psychiatric diagnoses?
A. DSM-5 only
B. ICD-10-CM
C. CPT
D. SNOMED
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: ICD-10-CM is the official diagnostic coding system used in the U.S.
6. True or False: A psychiatric diagnosis automatically means treatment is required.
Correct Answer: False
Rationale: Treatment decisions depend on symptom severity, distress, and functional
impairment—not diagnosis alone.
7. A client reports sadness after the death of a pet but maintains normal functioning. How
should this be interpreted?
,A. Major depressive disorder
B. Maladaptive grief
C. Cultural incongruence
D. Normal response with no mental illness
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Absence of functional impairment indicates a normal emotional response.
8. When is a client considered at risk for mental illness?
A. Use of defense mechanisms
B. DSM-5 criteria unmet
C. Maladaptive stress responses interfering with functioning
D. Emotional expression
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Impairment plus maladaptive coping signals risk.
9. A client says, “I’m here for my heart, not my head.” Best nurse response?
A. “These are required questions.”
B. “Why are you upset?”
C. “Stress can affect physical health.”
D. “We can skip this section.”
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Educates while maintaining therapeutic rapport.
10. A child teases a peer he likes. Which defense mechanism is this?
A. Projection
B. Displacement
C. Reaction formation
D. Sublimation
, Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Reaction formation expresses opposite behavior to unwanted feelings.
11. A client says, “I don’t drink too much!” despite intoxication. Defense mechanism?
A. Rationalization
B. Projection
C. Denial
D. Regression
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Denial involves refusal to acknowledge reality.
12. Which statement about psychosis is most accurate?
A. Clients recognize symptoms
B. Clients experience little distress
C. Clients are reality-based
D. Clients seek treatment early
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Psychosis involves impaired insight; distress may be minimal.
13. DSM-5 defines mental disorder dysfunction as involving which processes?
A. Psychosocial only
B. Cognitive only
C. Psychological, biological, developmental
D. Environmental
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: DSM-5 emphasizes a biopsychosocial framework.
14. Which symptoms indicate anxiety? (Select all that apply)
