NUR 230 Maternal Exam 1 Complete Questions and Correct Answers | Graded
A+ | Verified Answers | Latest Version | Brand New Version!
Question 1
A woman presents to the clinic and states she is currently pregnant. She has a history of one
miscarriage at 12 weeks and one birth at 39 weeks. How should the nurse document her Gravida
status?
A) Gravida 1
B) Gravida 2
C) Gravida 3
D) Gravida 4
E) Gravida 0
Correct Answer: C) Gravida 3
Rationale: Gravida refers to the total number of times a woman has been pregnant,
regardless of the duration or the outcome of the pregnancy. In this scenario, the woman is
currently pregnant (1), had a miscarriage (2), and had one previous birth (3). Therefore,
her total Gravida count is 3.
Question 2
A patient reports that the first day of her last menstrual period (LMP) was May 10th. Using
Naegele’s Rule, what is her estimated date of delivery (EDD)?
A) February 10th
B) February 17th
C) January 17th
D) March 17th
E) February 3rd
Correct Answer: B) February 17th
Rationale: Naegele’s Rule is a standard method used to determine the EDD. The formula is:
(First day of LMP + 7 days) minus 3 months. Starting with May 10th, adding 7 days brings
us to May 17th. Subtracting 3 months from May results in February. Therefore, the EDD is
February 17th.
Question 3
The nurse is documenting "Para" for a client. Which of the following best describes this term?
A) The total number of times the woman has been pregnant.
B) The number of fetuses delivered, not the number of pregnancies.
C) The total number of viable pregnancies that reached at least 20 weeks gestation.
D) The number of children currently living in the home.
E) The number of pregnancies that reached full term (37 weeks).
, 2
Correct Answer: C) The total number of viable pregnancies that reached at least 20 weeks
gestation
Rationale: Para (or Parity) refers to the number of pregnancies in which the fetus or fetuses
have reached 20 weeks of gestation, regardless of whether the offspring are born alive or
stillborn. It does not refer to the number of fetuses; for example, a twin pregnancy reaching
20 weeks counts as Para 1.
Question 4
A woman at 10 weeks gestation is experiencing morning sickness. Which of the following is
classified as a "presumptive" sign of pregnancy?
A) Hearing fetal heart tones via Doppler.
B) A positive serum pregnancy test.
C) Amenorrhea and urinary frequency.
D) Palpation of fetal movement by the provider.
E) Chadwick’s sign.
Correct Answer: C) Amenorrhea and urinary frequency
Rationale: Presumptive signs are subjective data that the woman experiences herself. These
can be caused by conditions other than pregnancy. Examples include nausea, vomiting,
fatigue, breast changes, and amenorrhea. Positive signs (A, D) are objective data that prove
a fetus exists, while probable signs (B, E) are objective changes observed by the provider
that strongly suggest pregnancy.
Question 5
During a pelvic exam, the nurse notes that the patient's cervix has a bluish-purple discoloration.
The nurse correctly identifies this as:
A) Goodell's sign
B) Hegar's sign
C) Ballottement
D) Chadwick's sign
E) Murphy's sign
Correct Answer: D) Chadwick's sign
Rationale: Chadwick’s sign is a probable sign of pregnancy characterized by a violet-bluish
color of the vaginal mucosa and cervix. It results from increased vascularity (blood flow) to
the pelvic organs, which is triggered by rising estrogen levels during early pregnancy.
Question 6
Which finding is considered a "positive" sign of pregnancy?
A) Uterine enlargement.
B) Positive urine HCG test.
C) Visualization of the fetus via ultrasound.
, 3
D) Braxton Hicks contractions.
E) Softening of the lower uterine segment.
Correct Answer: C) Visualization of the fetus via ultrasound
Rationale: Positive signs of pregnancy are attributed only to the presence of a fetus. There
are only three positive signs: 1. Visualization of the fetus by ultrasound (can be seen as
early as 4-6 weeks), 2. Hearing fetal heart tones (via Doppler around 10-12 weeks), and 3.
Fetal movement palpated or visualized by an experienced clinician.
Question 7
The nurse is teaching a pregnant woman about cardiovascular changes. Which statement is
accurate regarding blood volume and heart rate?
A) Cardiac output decreases to protect the fetus from high pressure.
B) Heart rate typically decreases by 10-15 beats per minute.
C) Cardiac output increases by 10% to 50% and heart rate increases 10-15 bpm.
D) Blood volume stays the same, but the blood becomes more concentrated.
E) Only the systolic blood pressure increases during the first trimester.
Correct Answer: C) Cardiac output increases by 10% to 50% and heart rate increases 10-15
bpm
Rationale: Pregnancy creates a significant demand on the heart. To provide adequate
perfusion to the placenta and the expanding maternal tissues, the total blood volume
increases by 30-50%. Consequently, cardiac output (CO) increases significantly, and the
resting heart rate rises to help move the extra fluid volume.
Question 8
A woman at 28 weeks gestation feels dizzy and faint while lying flat on her back for an
abdominal exam. What is the nurse's immediate action?
A) Start a high-flow oxygen mask.
B) Administer an IV bolus of Lactated Ringer's.
C) Reposition the patient onto her left side.
D) Call a code for maternal cardiac arrest.
E) Place the patient in the Trendelenburg position.
Correct Answer: C) Reposition the patient onto her left side
Rationale: This is known as Vena Cava Syndrome (Supine Hypotensive Syndrome). It
occurs when the heavy, pregnant uterus presses against the inferior vena cava, reducing
blood return to the heart. Turning the mother to her left side immediately relieves the
pressure, restores venous return, and increases cardiac output/blood pressure.
Question 9
What is the primary purpose of the hormone HCG in early pregnancy?
, 4
A) It acts as an insulin antagonist to raise maternal blood sugar.
B) It maintains the corpus luteum until the placenta is fully functional.
C) It causes the smooth muscles of the uterus to relax.
D) It triggers the production of colostrum in the breasts.
E) It is responsible for the growth of fetal long bones.
Correct Answer: B) It maintains the corpus luteum until the placenta is fully functional
Rationale: Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (HCG) is secreted by the trophoblast early in
pregnancy. Its main job is to signal the corpus luteum to continue producing progesterone
and estrogen, which prevents the lining of the uterus from shedding (menstruation) until
the placenta can take over hormone production around week 10-12.
Question 10
A pregnant patient asks about the hyperpigmented line appearing on her abdomen from the
symphysis pubis to the top of the fundus. The nurse identifies this as:
A) Chloasma
B) Striae gravidarum
C) Linea nigra
D) Angiomas
E) Palmar erythema
Correct Answer: C) Linea nigra
Rationale: The linea nigra is a common skin change in pregnancy caused by increased
melanocyte-stimulating hormone. It is a dark, vertical line that appears on the midline of
the abdomen. Chloasma (A) refers to the "mask of pregnancy" on the face, and Striae
gravidarum (B) are stretch marks.
Question 11
At a prenatal visit, a woman at 36 weeks gestation reports that the baby has "dropped" and she
can breathe more easily, though she now has increased urinary frequency. This is called:
A) Quickening
B) Ballottement
C) Effacement
D) Lightening
E) Engagement
Correct Answer: D) Lightening
Rationale: Lightening occurs when the fetal presenting part descends into the true pelvis.
This usually happens about 2-3 weeks before labor starts in first-time mothers. While it
relieves pressure on the diaphragm (allowing easier breathing), it increases pressure on the
bladder, causing urinary frequency.
A+ | Verified Answers | Latest Version | Brand New Version!
Question 1
A woman presents to the clinic and states she is currently pregnant. She has a history of one
miscarriage at 12 weeks and one birth at 39 weeks. How should the nurse document her Gravida
status?
A) Gravida 1
B) Gravida 2
C) Gravida 3
D) Gravida 4
E) Gravida 0
Correct Answer: C) Gravida 3
Rationale: Gravida refers to the total number of times a woman has been pregnant,
regardless of the duration or the outcome of the pregnancy. In this scenario, the woman is
currently pregnant (1), had a miscarriage (2), and had one previous birth (3). Therefore,
her total Gravida count is 3.
Question 2
A patient reports that the first day of her last menstrual period (LMP) was May 10th. Using
Naegele’s Rule, what is her estimated date of delivery (EDD)?
A) February 10th
B) February 17th
C) January 17th
D) March 17th
E) February 3rd
Correct Answer: B) February 17th
Rationale: Naegele’s Rule is a standard method used to determine the EDD. The formula is:
(First day of LMP + 7 days) minus 3 months. Starting with May 10th, adding 7 days brings
us to May 17th. Subtracting 3 months from May results in February. Therefore, the EDD is
February 17th.
Question 3
The nurse is documenting "Para" for a client. Which of the following best describes this term?
A) The total number of times the woman has been pregnant.
B) The number of fetuses delivered, not the number of pregnancies.
C) The total number of viable pregnancies that reached at least 20 weeks gestation.
D) The number of children currently living in the home.
E) The number of pregnancies that reached full term (37 weeks).
, 2
Correct Answer: C) The total number of viable pregnancies that reached at least 20 weeks
gestation
Rationale: Para (or Parity) refers to the number of pregnancies in which the fetus or fetuses
have reached 20 weeks of gestation, regardless of whether the offspring are born alive or
stillborn. It does not refer to the number of fetuses; for example, a twin pregnancy reaching
20 weeks counts as Para 1.
Question 4
A woman at 10 weeks gestation is experiencing morning sickness. Which of the following is
classified as a "presumptive" sign of pregnancy?
A) Hearing fetal heart tones via Doppler.
B) A positive serum pregnancy test.
C) Amenorrhea and urinary frequency.
D) Palpation of fetal movement by the provider.
E) Chadwick’s sign.
Correct Answer: C) Amenorrhea and urinary frequency
Rationale: Presumptive signs are subjective data that the woman experiences herself. These
can be caused by conditions other than pregnancy. Examples include nausea, vomiting,
fatigue, breast changes, and amenorrhea. Positive signs (A, D) are objective data that prove
a fetus exists, while probable signs (B, E) are objective changes observed by the provider
that strongly suggest pregnancy.
Question 5
During a pelvic exam, the nurse notes that the patient's cervix has a bluish-purple discoloration.
The nurse correctly identifies this as:
A) Goodell's sign
B) Hegar's sign
C) Ballottement
D) Chadwick's sign
E) Murphy's sign
Correct Answer: D) Chadwick's sign
Rationale: Chadwick’s sign is a probable sign of pregnancy characterized by a violet-bluish
color of the vaginal mucosa and cervix. It results from increased vascularity (blood flow) to
the pelvic organs, which is triggered by rising estrogen levels during early pregnancy.
Question 6
Which finding is considered a "positive" sign of pregnancy?
A) Uterine enlargement.
B) Positive urine HCG test.
C) Visualization of the fetus via ultrasound.
, 3
D) Braxton Hicks contractions.
E) Softening of the lower uterine segment.
Correct Answer: C) Visualization of the fetus via ultrasound
Rationale: Positive signs of pregnancy are attributed only to the presence of a fetus. There
are only three positive signs: 1. Visualization of the fetus by ultrasound (can be seen as
early as 4-6 weeks), 2. Hearing fetal heart tones (via Doppler around 10-12 weeks), and 3.
Fetal movement palpated or visualized by an experienced clinician.
Question 7
The nurse is teaching a pregnant woman about cardiovascular changes. Which statement is
accurate regarding blood volume and heart rate?
A) Cardiac output decreases to protect the fetus from high pressure.
B) Heart rate typically decreases by 10-15 beats per minute.
C) Cardiac output increases by 10% to 50% and heart rate increases 10-15 bpm.
D) Blood volume stays the same, but the blood becomes more concentrated.
E) Only the systolic blood pressure increases during the first trimester.
Correct Answer: C) Cardiac output increases by 10% to 50% and heart rate increases 10-15
bpm
Rationale: Pregnancy creates a significant demand on the heart. To provide adequate
perfusion to the placenta and the expanding maternal tissues, the total blood volume
increases by 30-50%. Consequently, cardiac output (CO) increases significantly, and the
resting heart rate rises to help move the extra fluid volume.
Question 8
A woman at 28 weeks gestation feels dizzy and faint while lying flat on her back for an
abdominal exam. What is the nurse's immediate action?
A) Start a high-flow oxygen mask.
B) Administer an IV bolus of Lactated Ringer's.
C) Reposition the patient onto her left side.
D) Call a code for maternal cardiac arrest.
E) Place the patient in the Trendelenburg position.
Correct Answer: C) Reposition the patient onto her left side
Rationale: This is known as Vena Cava Syndrome (Supine Hypotensive Syndrome). It
occurs when the heavy, pregnant uterus presses against the inferior vena cava, reducing
blood return to the heart. Turning the mother to her left side immediately relieves the
pressure, restores venous return, and increases cardiac output/blood pressure.
Question 9
What is the primary purpose of the hormone HCG in early pregnancy?
, 4
A) It acts as an insulin antagonist to raise maternal blood sugar.
B) It maintains the corpus luteum until the placenta is fully functional.
C) It causes the smooth muscles of the uterus to relax.
D) It triggers the production of colostrum in the breasts.
E) It is responsible for the growth of fetal long bones.
Correct Answer: B) It maintains the corpus luteum until the placenta is fully functional
Rationale: Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (HCG) is secreted by the trophoblast early in
pregnancy. Its main job is to signal the corpus luteum to continue producing progesterone
and estrogen, which prevents the lining of the uterus from shedding (menstruation) until
the placenta can take over hormone production around week 10-12.
Question 10
A pregnant patient asks about the hyperpigmented line appearing on her abdomen from the
symphysis pubis to the top of the fundus. The nurse identifies this as:
A) Chloasma
B) Striae gravidarum
C) Linea nigra
D) Angiomas
E) Palmar erythema
Correct Answer: C) Linea nigra
Rationale: The linea nigra is a common skin change in pregnancy caused by increased
melanocyte-stimulating hormone. It is a dark, vertical line that appears on the midline of
the abdomen. Chloasma (A) refers to the "mask of pregnancy" on the face, and Striae
gravidarum (B) are stretch marks.
Question 11
At a prenatal visit, a woman at 36 weeks gestation reports that the baby has "dropped" and she
can breathe more easily, though she now has increased urinary frequency. This is called:
A) Quickening
B) Ballottement
C) Effacement
D) Lightening
E) Engagement
Correct Answer: D) Lightening
Rationale: Lightening occurs when the fetal presenting part descends into the true pelvis.
This usually happens about 2-3 weeks before labor starts in first-time mothers. While it
relieves pressure on the diaphragm (allowing easier breathing), it increases pressure on the
bladder, causing urinary frequency.
