HFMA CSPR EXAM 2026 | CERTIFIED SPECIALIST PAYMENT AND
REIMBURSE- MENT EXAM | ALL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS |
GRADED A+ | VERIFIED ANSWERS | NEWEST EXAM
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_hgbg9w
1. The No Surprise Act was a product of:
A) The Health Insurance Portability Act
B) The Consolidation Appropriations Act
C) The Treaty of Algeron
D) The Affordable Care Act: D) The Affordable Care Act
2. Which of the following is an advantage of direct contracting?
A) Providers do not have to adjudicate claims for payment
B) Employers can save the cost of working with an insurance company
C) It allows the patients to have a choice of providers and physicians
D) Providers can work directly with employers to reduce the cost of providing
insurance: D) Providers can work directly with employers to reduce the cost of
providing insurance
3. Accountable Care Organizations (ACOs) have all of the following character-
istics EXCEPT:
A) Patient centric care model
B) Financial incentive for quantity of care
C) Integrated care coordination
D) Electronic Medical Record System: B) Financial incentive for quantity of care
4. The Emergency Treatment and Active Labor Act (EMTALA) governs when a
patient may be transferred from one hospital to another when in a(n) condi-
tion:
A) Life threatening
B) Non-emergency
C) Stable
D) Chronic: A) Life threatening
5. STAR ratings are used to indicate the quality of:
A) Accountable Care Organizations performance
B) Medicare Advantage health plan performance
C) Services provided by hospitals
D) Services provided by physicians: B) Medicare Advantage health plan perfor-
mance
, HFMA CSPR EXAM 2026 | CERTIFIED SPECIALIST PAYMENT AND
REIMBURSE- MENT EXAM | ALL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS |
GRADED A+ | VERIFIED ANSWERS | NEWEST EXAM
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_hgbg9w
6. To evaluate an organization's compliance with the CMS COP standards and
other accreditation requirements, is the purpose of:
A) A comprehensive accreditation process
B) Recovery Audits
C) The American Osteopathic Association
D) A clean claim: A) A comprehensive accreditation process
7. What is tiering?
A) Typically fixed dollar amounts paid by the insured directly to the practitioner
per episode of care
B) Healthcare coverage products featuring narrow networks, high cost sharing
and very low premiums
C) An effort by insurers to increase premiums and to address calls from
employers and the public for improved quality
D) The ranking or classifying of one or more of the provider delivery system
components to influence choice: D) The ranking or classifying of one or more of
the provider delivery system components to influence choice
8. Which piece of information is NOT necessary for claims processing?
A) Provider or referring provider identification
B) Family medical history
C) Type of service
D) Procedure code: B) Family medical history
9. Which option is NOT true concerning the Consolidated Omnibus Budget
Reconciliation ACT (COBRA)?
A) COBRA beneficiaries generally are eligible for group coverage during a
maximum of 48 months for qualifying events
B) COBRA coverage begins on the date that healthcare coverage would
otherwise have been lost because of a qualifying event
C) COBRA establishes specific criteria for plans, qualified beneficiaries, and
, HFMA CSPR EXAM 2026 | CERTIFIED SPECIALIST PAYMENT AND
REIMBURSE- MENT EXAM | ALL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS |
GRADED A+ | VERIFIED ANSWERS | NEWEST EXAM
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_hgbg9w
qualifying events to be eligible for benefits
D) Group health coverage for COBRA participants is usually more expensive
than health coverage for active employee: A) COBRA beneficiaries generally are
eligible for group coverage during a maximum of 48 months for qualifying events
10. Which of the following is a managed care trend that can reduce utilization
and costs because patients pay higher out-of-pockeet amounts?
A) Requirements for participation in Medicare managed care plans
B) Growth in high-deductible health plans with a Health Savings (HSA) option
C) Growth in participation in Medicaid managed care plans
D) Growth in participation in Medicare managed care plans: B) Growth in
high-deductible health plans with a Health Savings (HSA) option
11. A Medicare Advanced Beneficiary Notice (ABN) provides the following:
A) Notifies member of alternative covered services
B) Notifies member of a non-authorized procedure
C) Notifies member of non-covered service
D) Notifies member of guaranteed payment: C) Notifies member of non-covered
service
12. The appropriate addition of some risk in the exchange of health care to a
patient for some form of remuneration, is also known as:
A) Diagnosis-related groups (DRG's)
B) Per diems
C) Fee-for-Service reimbursement
D) Aligning incentives: B) Per diems
13. The federal government pays a share of the medical assistance expendi-
tures under each state's Medicaid program. How is that share, known as the
federal medical assistance percentage (FMAP), determined?
A) None of the above
B) By using a formula that compares the states average per capita income
level with the national income average
C) By ranking states according to the percentage of residents at the poverty
level
D) By averaging the percentage paid in the five previous years: B) By using a
REIMBURSE- MENT EXAM | ALL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS |
GRADED A+ | VERIFIED ANSWERS | NEWEST EXAM
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_hgbg9w
1. The No Surprise Act was a product of:
A) The Health Insurance Portability Act
B) The Consolidation Appropriations Act
C) The Treaty of Algeron
D) The Affordable Care Act: D) The Affordable Care Act
2. Which of the following is an advantage of direct contracting?
A) Providers do not have to adjudicate claims for payment
B) Employers can save the cost of working with an insurance company
C) It allows the patients to have a choice of providers and physicians
D) Providers can work directly with employers to reduce the cost of providing
insurance: D) Providers can work directly with employers to reduce the cost of
providing insurance
3. Accountable Care Organizations (ACOs) have all of the following character-
istics EXCEPT:
A) Patient centric care model
B) Financial incentive for quantity of care
C) Integrated care coordination
D) Electronic Medical Record System: B) Financial incentive for quantity of care
4. The Emergency Treatment and Active Labor Act (EMTALA) governs when a
patient may be transferred from one hospital to another when in a(n) condi-
tion:
A) Life threatening
B) Non-emergency
C) Stable
D) Chronic: A) Life threatening
5. STAR ratings are used to indicate the quality of:
A) Accountable Care Organizations performance
B) Medicare Advantage health plan performance
C) Services provided by hospitals
D) Services provided by physicians: B) Medicare Advantage health plan perfor-
mance
, HFMA CSPR EXAM 2026 | CERTIFIED SPECIALIST PAYMENT AND
REIMBURSE- MENT EXAM | ALL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS |
GRADED A+ | VERIFIED ANSWERS | NEWEST EXAM
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_hgbg9w
6. To evaluate an organization's compliance with the CMS COP standards and
other accreditation requirements, is the purpose of:
A) A comprehensive accreditation process
B) Recovery Audits
C) The American Osteopathic Association
D) A clean claim: A) A comprehensive accreditation process
7. What is tiering?
A) Typically fixed dollar amounts paid by the insured directly to the practitioner
per episode of care
B) Healthcare coverage products featuring narrow networks, high cost sharing
and very low premiums
C) An effort by insurers to increase premiums and to address calls from
employers and the public for improved quality
D) The ranking or classifying of one or more of the provider delivery system
components to influence choice: D) The ranking or classifying of one or more of
the provider delivery system components to influence choice
8. Which piece of information is NOT necessary for claims processing?
A) Provider or referring provider identification
B) Family medical history
C) Type of service
D) Procedure code: B) Family medical history
9. Which option is NOT true concerning the Consolidated Omnibus Budget
Reconciliation ACT (COBRA)?
A) COBRA beneficiaries generally are eligible for group coverage during a
maximum of 48 months for qualifying events
B) COBRA coverage begins on the date that healthcare coverage would
otherwise have been lost because of a qualifying event
C) COBRA establishes specific criteria for plans, qualified beneficiaries, and
, HFMA CSPR EXAM 2026 | CERTIFIED SPECIALIST PAYMENT AND
REIMBURSE- MENT EXAM | ALL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS |
GRADED A+ | VERIFIED ANSWERS | NEWEST EXAM
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_hgbg9w
qualifying events to be eligible for benefits
D) Group health coverage for COBRA participants is usually more expensive
than health coverage for active employee: A) COBRA beneficiaries generally are
eligible for group coverage during a maximum of 48 months for qualifying events
10. Which of the following is a managed care trend that can reduce utilization
and costs because patients pay higher out-of-pockeet amounts?
A) Requirements for participation in Medicare managed care plans
B) Growth in high-deductible health plans with a Health Savings (HSA) option
C) Growth in participation in Medicaid managed care plans
D) Growth in participation in Medicare managed care plans: B) Growth in
high-deductible health plans with a Health Savings (HSA) option
11. A Medicare Advanced Beneficiary Notice (ABN) provides the following:
A) Notifies member of alternative covered services
B) Notifies member of a non-authorized procedure
C) Notifies member of non-covered service
D) Notifies member of guaranteed payment: C) Notifies member of non-covered
service
12. The appropriate addition of some risk in the exchange of health care to a
patient for some form of remuneration, is also known as:
A) Diagnosis-related groups (DRG's)
B) Per diems
C) Fee-for-Service reimbursement
D) Aligning incentives: B) Per diems
13. The federal government pays a share of the medical assistance expendi-
tures under each state's Medicaid program. How is that share, known as the
federal medical assistance percentage (FMAP), determined?
A) None of the above
B) By using a formula that compares the states average per capita income
level with the national income average
C) By ranking states according to the percentage of residents at the poverty
level
D) By averaging the percentage paid in the five previous years: B) By using a
