Radiology Exam Review – ARRT Certification Preparation

Radiology Exam Review [ARRT] -
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1. Which of the following positions will provide an AP projection of the L5-S1
interspace?
(A) Patient AP with 30 to 35º angle cephalad
(B) Patient AP with 30 to 35º angle caudad
(C) Patient AP with 0º angle
(D) Patient lateral, coned to L5: (A) Patient AP with 30 to 35º angle cephalad
2. Which of the following anatomic structures is indicated by the number 2 in
Figure 2-7?
(A) Talus
(B) Medial malleolus
(C) Lateral malleolus
(D) Lateral tibial condyle
(Cornuelle & Gronefeld, pp 193-195): (B) Medial malleolus
3. The four major arteries supplying the brain include the
1. brachiocephalic artery.
2. common carotid arteries.
3. vertebral arteries.
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3: (C) 2 and 3 only
4. What process is best seen using a perpendicular CR with the elbow in acute
flexion and with the posterior aspect of the humerus adjacent to the image
recorder?
(A) Coracoid
(B) Coronoid
(C) Olecranon
(D) Glenoid: (C) Olecranon
5. What are the positions most commonly employed for a radiographic exam-
ination of the sternum?
1. Lateral
2. RAO
3. LAO
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3: (A) 1 and 2 only
6. Which of the positions illustrated in Figure 2-1 should be used to demon-
strate the cervical apophyseal articulations?


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1. A
2. B
3. C
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 only
(Ballinger & Frank, pp 400-403): (B) 2 only
7. When the erect position is requested as part of an IVP, it is used to demon-
strate
(A) the adrenal glands.
(B) the renal surfaces.
(C) kidney mobility.
(D) the bladder neck.: (C) kidney mobility.
8. For which of the following conditions is operative cholangiography a useful
tool?
1. Biliary tract calculi
2. Patency of the biliary ducts
3. Function of the sphincter of Oddi
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3: (D) 1, 2, and 3
9. During chest radiography, the act of inspiration
1. elevates the diaphragm.
2. raises the ribs.
3. depresses the abdominal viscera.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3: (C) 2 and 3 only
10. Standard radiographic protocols may be reduced to include two views, at
right angles to each other, in which of the following situations?
(A) Barium examinations
(B) Spine radiography
(C) Skull radiography
(D) Emergency and trauma radiography: (D) Emergency and trauma radiography
11. Which of the localization lines seen in Figure 2-35 is used for the SMV
(Schüller method) projection of the skull?


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(A) Line 1
(B) Line 2
(C) Line 3
(D) Line 4
(Saia, p 144): (C) Line 3

#3 is the infraorbitomeatal line (IOML)
12. Which of the following projections of the abdomen may be used to demon-
strate air or fluid levels?
1. Dorsal decubitus
2. Lateral decubitus
3. AP Trendelenburg
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, and 3: (B) 1 and 2 only
13. Blowout fractures of the orbit are best demonstrated using the
(A) lateral projection of the facial bones.
(B) parietoacanthial projection (Waters' method).
(C) posteroanterior projection with a 15º caudal angle.
(D) Sweet's localization method.: (B) parietoacanthial projection (Waters'
method).
14. Which of the following positions demonstrates all the paranasal sinuses?
(A) Parietoacanthial
(B) PA axial
(C) Lateral
(D) True PA: (C) Lateral
15. Which of the following is (are) true regarding radiographic examination of
the acromioclavicular joints?
1. The procedure is performed in the erect position.
2. Use of weights can improve demonstration of the joints.
3. The procedure should be avoided if dislocation or separation is suspected.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 only: (B) 1 and 2
16. The structure labeled 1 in Figure 2-30 is the
(A) intervertebral disk space.
(B) apophyseal joint.


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(C) intervertebral foramen.
(D) spinous process.

[shown is a lateral projection of the cervical spine taken in flexion]
(Ballinger & Frank, vol 1, pp 398, 399): (B) apophyseal joint.
17. Shoulder arthrography may be performed to evaluate
(A) humeral dislocation.
(B) complete or incomplete rotator cuff tears.
(C) osteoarthritis.
(D) acromioclavicular joint separation.
(Fig. 2-59)
(Ballinger & Frank, vol 1, p 496): (B) complete or incomplete rotator cuff tears.
18. The position illustrated in the radiograph in Figure 2-26 may be obtained
with the patient
1. supine and the central ray angled 30º caudad.
2. supine and the central ray angled 30º cephalad.
3. prone and the central ray angled 30º cephalad.
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 2 and 3 only
(Ballinger & Frank, vol 2, pp 134, 139): (B) 2 only
19. Which of the following is demonstrated in a 25º RPO position with the
central ray entering 1 in medial to the elevated ASIS?
(A) Left sacroiliac joint
(B) Right sacroiliac joint
(C) Left ilium
(D) Right ilium: (A) Left sacroiliac joint
20. In the posterior oblique position of the cervical spine, the intervertebral
foramina that are best seen are those
(A) nearest the film.
(B) furthest from the film.
(C) seen medially.
(D) seen inferiorly.: (B) furthest from the film.
21. The junction of the transverse colon and the descending colon forms the
(A) hepatic flexure.
(B) splenic flexure.
(C) transverse flexure.