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NURS 6531 Final Exam 2026(NEW UPDATED VERSION)
LATEST ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS (VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS)-
GUARANTEED PASS A+
The daughter of an elderly confused patient reports that her parent is having urinary
incontinence several times each day. What will the provider do initially?
a. Obtain a urine sample for urinalysis (UA) and possible culture
b. Order serum creatinine and blood urea nitrogen tests
c. Perform a bladder scan to determine distention and retention
d. Tell the daughter that this is expected given her mother's age and confusion - CORRECT
ANSWER ANS: A
When incontinence occurs, UA is performed initially to exclude hematuria, pyuria, glucosuria,
or proteinuria and possible infection. Serum creatinine and BUN may be performed if renal
disease is suspected. Bladder scans may be performed if the UA is normal to evaluate
physiologic causes. It is not correct to offer reassurance without ruling out other causes.
QUESTION : The provider is evaluating a patient for potential causes of urinary incontinence
and performs a postvoid residual (PVR) test which yields 30 mL of urine. What is the
interpretation of this
result?
a. The patient may have overflow incontinence.
b. The patient probably has a urinary tract infection (UTI).
c. This is a normal result.
d. This represents incomplete emptying. - CORRECT ANSWER ANS: C
A PVR less than 50 mL is considered normal and this result does not indicate any abnormality.
practice exam 2026
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QUESTION : The provider is counseling a patient who has stress incontinence about ways to
minimize accidents. What will the provider suggest initially?
a. Increasing fluid intake to dilute the urine
b. Referral to a physical therapist
c. Taking pseudoephedrine daily
d. Voiding every 2 hours during the day - CORRECT ANSWER ANS: D
Timed voiding is useful to help minimize stress incontinence and is used initially. Increasing
fluid intake will increase symptoms. PT referral may be done if other measures fail to help
with exercises to strengthen the pelvic floor muscles. Pseudoephedrine is useful, but not an
initial therapy.
QUESTION : An older male patient reports urinary frequency, back pain, and nocturia. A
dipstick urinalysis reveals hematuria. What will the provider do next to evaluate this
condition?
a. Order a PSA and perform a digital rectal exam (DRE)
b. Refer for a biopsy
c. Refer the patient to a urologist
d. Schedule a transurethral ultrasound (TRUS) - CORRECT ANSWER ANS: A
Patients with symptoms of potential prostate cancer should be screened with PSA and DRE.
Referral to a urologist is the next step even with normal findings, since PSA is occasionally
normal. The urologist may order TRUS or biopsy.
QUESTION : An older male patient has a screening prostate-specific antigen (PSA) which is 12
ng/mL. What does this value indicate?
a. A normal result
b. Benign prostatic hypertrophy
c. Early prostate cancer
d. Prostate cancer - CORRECT ANSWER ANS: D
A PSA greater than 10 ng/mL suggests prostate cancer. A level between 4 and 10 ng/mL may
be early prostate cancer or a benign condition. A level less than 4 ng/mL is normal.
practice exam 2026
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QUESTION : A patient is diagnosed with prostate cancer and diagnostic testing reveals
disease that has gone past the prostatic capsule without evidence of metastasis. The patient
does not wish to undergo treatment. What will the provider tell this patient?
a. Chemotherapy is indicated to provide cure for this cancer.
b. Monitoring prostate-specific antigen (PSA) with regular digital rectal examination (DRE) is
an acceptable option.
c. Palliative radiation therapy is necessary to improve quality of life.
d. This level of disease requires intervention with hormonal therapy. - CORRECT
ANSWER ANS: B
This patient has stage T2 prostate cancer which may be managed with watchful waiting which
includes PSA and DRE evaluation. Chemotherapy, palliative radiation therapy, and hormonal
therapy are not required.
QUESTION : A male patient reports nocturia and daytime urinary frequency and urgency
without changes in the force of the urine stream. What is the likely cause of this?
a. Bladder outlet obstruction
b. Lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS)
c. Prostate cancer
d. Urinary tract infection (UTI) - CORRECT ANSWER ANS: B
Lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS) result from irritative changes in the lower tract. Bladder
outlet obstruction causes hesitancy, decreased caliber and force of the urine stream, and
postvoid dribbling. Diagnosis of prostate cancer and UTI require further testing and are less
likely causes.
QUESTION : A 70-year-old male reports urinary hesitancy, postvoid dribbling, and a
diminished urine stream. A digital rectal exam (DRE) reveals an enlarged prostate gland that
feels rubbery and smooth. Which tests will the primary care provider order based on these
findings?
a. Bladder scan for postvoid residual
b. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) and bladder imaging
practice exam 2026
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c. Urinalysis and serum creatinine
d. Urine culture and CBC with differential - CORRECT ANSWER ANS: C
The DRE reveals a prostate gland consistent with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). The
primary provider should order a urinalysis and creatinine to evaluate possible infection and
renal function. A bladder scan is ordered at the discretion of the urologist. The prostate exam
isn't consistent with prostate cancer, so PSA and bladder imaging are not necessary.
Symptoms of prostatitis would indicate a need for evaluation of possible infection.
QUESTION : A patient has been taking terazosin daily at bedtime to treat benign prostatic
hyperplasia (BPH) and reports persistent daytime dizziness. What will the provider do?
a. Prescribe finasteride instead of terazosin
b. Recommend taking the medication in the morning
c. Suggest using herbal preparations
d. Switch the prescription to doxazosin - CORRECT ANSWER ANS: A
Patients who cannot tolerate the side effect of alpha-adrenergic antagonists, the provider
may initiate therapy with a 5a-reductase inhibitor such as finasteride. Terazosin should be
given at bedtime to minimize these adverse effects. Herbal preparations have not been
proven to be safe or effective. Doxazosin is in the same drug class as terazosin.
QUESTION : A pregnant woman at 30 weeks gestation presents with proteinuria. What will
the provider do next?
a. Evaluate her blood pressure and discuss with OB/GYN
b. Monitor serum glucose for gestational diabetes
c. Perform a 24-hour urine collection
d. Reassure her that this normal at this stage of pregnancy - CORRECT ANSWER
ANS: A
Proteinuria after 24 weeks gestation is usually a sign of preeclampsia, so her blood pressure
should be evaluated and discussed with the OB/GYN. Serum glucose evaluation for
gestational diabetes is performed as part of routine screening but is not related to the finding
of proteinuria. A 24-hour urine collection is not indicated.
practice exam 2026
NURS 6531 Final Exam 2026(NEW UPDATED VERSION)
LATEST ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS (VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS)-
GUARANTEED PASS A+
The daughter of an elderly confused patient reports that her parent is having urinary
incontinence several times each day. What will the provider do initially?
a. Obtain a urine sample for urinalysis (UA) and possible culture
b. Order serum creatinine and blood urea nitrogen tests
c. Perform a bladder scan to determine distention and retention
d. Tell the daughter that this is expected given her mother's age and confusion - CORRECT
ANSWER ANS: A
When incontinence occurs, UA is performed initially to exclude hematuria, pyuria, glucosuria,
or proteinuria and possible infection. Serum creatinine and BUN may be performed if renal
disease is suspected. Bladder scans may be performed if the UA is normal to evaluate
physiologic causes. It is not correct to offer reassurance without ruling out other causes.
QUESTION : The provider is evaluating a patient for potential causes of urinary incontinence
and performs a postvoid residual (PVR) test which yields 30 mL of urine. What is the
interpretation of this
result?
a. The patient may have overflow incontinence.
b. The patient probably has a urinary tract infection (UTI).
c. This is a normal result.
d. This represents incomplete emptying. - CORRECT ANSWER ANS: C
A PVR less than 50 mL is considered normal and this result does not indicate any abnormality.
practice exam 2026
,2|Page
QUESTION : The provider is counseling a patient who has stress incontinence about ways to
minimize accidents. What will the provider suggest initially?
a. Increasing fluid intake to dilute the urine
b. Referral to a physical therapist
c. Taking pseudoephedrine daily
d. Voiding every 2 hours during the day - CORRECT ANSWER ANS: D
Timed voiding is useful to help minimize stress incontinence and is used initially. Increasing
fluid intake will increase symptoms. PT referral may be done if other measures fail to help
with exercises to strengthen the pelvic floor muscles. Pseudoephedrine is useful, but not an
initial therapy.
QUESTION : An older male patient reports urinary frequency, back pain, and nocturia. A
dipstick urinalysis reveals hematuria. What will the provider do next to evaluate this
condition?
a. Order a PSA and perform a digital rectal exam (DRE)
b. Refer for a biopsy
c. Refer the patient to a urologist
d. Schedule a transurethral ultrasound (TRUS) - CORRECT ANSWER ANS: A
Patients with symptoms of potential prostate cancer should be screened with PSA and DRE.
Referral to a urologist is the next step even with normal findings, since PSA is occasionally
normal. The urologist may order TRUS or biopsy.
QUESTION : An older male patient has a screening prostate-specific antigen (PSA) which is 12
ng/mL. What does this value indicate?
a. A normal result
b. Benign prostatic hypertrophy
c. Early prostate cancer
d. Prostate cancer - CORRECT ANSWER ANS: D
A PSA greater than 10 ng/mL suggests prostate cancer. A level between 4 and 10 ng/mL may
be early prostate cancer or a benign condition. A level less than 4 ng/mL is normal.
practice exam 2026
,3|Page
QUESTION : A patient is diagnosed with prostate cancer and diagnostic testing reveals
disease that has gone past the prostatic capsule without evidence of metastasis. The patient
does not wish to undergo treatment. What will the provider tell this patient?
a. Chemotherapy is indicated to provide cure for this cancer.
b. Monitoring prostate-specific antigen (PSA) with regular digital rectal examination (DRE) is
an acceptable option.
c. Palliative radiation therapy is necessary to improve quality of life.
d. This level of disease requires intervention with hormonal therapy. - CORRECT
ANSWER ANS: B
This patient has stage T2 prostate cancer which may be managed with watchful waiting which
includes PSA and DRE evaluation. Chemotherapy, palliative radiation therapy, and hormonal
therapy are not required.
QUESTION : A male patient reports nocturia and daytime urinary frequency and urgency
without changes in the force of the urine stream. What is the likely cause of this?
a. Bladder outlet obstruction
b. Lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS)
c. Prostate cancer
d. Urinary tract infection (UTI) - CORRECT ANSWER ANS: B
Lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS) result from irritative changes in the lower tract. Bladder
outlet obstruction causes hesitancy, decreased caliber and force of the urine stream, and
postvoid dribbling. Diagnosis of prostate cancer and UTI require further testing and are less
likely causes.
QUESTION : A 70-year-old male reports urinary hesitancy, postvoid dribbling, and a
diminished urine stream. A digital rectal exam (DRE) reveals an enlarged prostate gland that
feels rubbery and smooth. Which tests will the primary care provider order based on these
findings?
a. Bladder scan for postvoid residual
b. Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) and bladder imaging
practice exam 2026
, 4|Page
c. Urinalysis and serum creatinine
d. Urine culture and CBC with differential - CORRECT ANSWER ANS: C
The DRE reveals a prostate gland consistent with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). The
primary provider should order a urinalysis and creatinine to evaluate possible infection and
renal function. A bladder scan is ordered at the discretion of the urologist. The prostate exam
isn't consistent with prostate cancer, so PSA and bladder imaging are not necessary.
Symptoms of prostatitis would indicate a need for evaluation of possible infection.
QUESTION : A patient has been taking terazosin daily at bedtime to treat benign prostatic
hyperplasia (BPH) and reports persistent daytime dizziness. What will the provider do?
a. Prescribe finasteride instead of terazosin
b. Recommend taking the medication in the morning
c. Suggest using herbal preparations
d. Switch the prescription to doxazosin - CORRECT ANSWER ANS: A
Patients who cannot tolerate the side effect of alpha-adrenergic antagonists, the provider
may initiate therapy with a 5a-reductase inhibitor such as finasteride. Terazosin should be
given at bedtime to minimize these adverse effects. Herbal preparations have not been
proven to be safe or effective. Doxazosin is in the same drug class as terazosin.
QUESTION : A pregnant woman at 30 weeks gestation presents with proteinuria. What will
the provider do next?
a. Evaluate her blood pressure and discuss with OB/GYN
b. Monitor serum glucose for gestational diabetes
c. Perform a 24-hour urine collection
d. Reassure her that this normal at this stage of pregnancy - CORRECT ANSWER
ANS: A
Proteinuria after 24 weeks gestation is usually a sign of preeclampsia, so her blood pressure
should be evaluated and discussed with the OB/GYN. Serum glucose evaluation for
gestational diabetes is performed as part of routine screening but is not related to the finding
of proteinuria. A 24-hour urine collection is not indicated.
practice exam 2026
