1|Page
NSG 3850, Patho 2 Exam 1 Study Guide (NEW UPDATED
VERSION) LATEST ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS (VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS)-
GUARANTEED PASS A+
NSG 3850 Exam 1 – Pathophysiology II
Practice Questions
1. A patient presents with left-sided heart failure. Which is the hallmark clinical manifestation?
A. Peripheral edema
B. Pulmonary congestion
C. Jugular vein distension
D. Hepatomegaly
Answer: B
Rationale: Left-sided heart failure leads to pulmonary congestion due to blood backing up into
the lungs, causing dyspnea and crackles.
2. Right-sided heart failure is often caused by:
A. Chronic hypertension
B. Left-sided heart failure
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. Both B and C
Answer: D
Rationale: Right-sided HF often results from left-sided HF or pulmonary conditions (cor
pulmonale), causing peripheral edema and hepatomegaly.
3. Which type of shock is characterized by severe vasodilation and low systemic vascular
resistance?
A. Hypovolemic
B. Cardiogenic
C. Distributive (septic)
D. Obstructive
practice exam 2026
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Answer: C
Rationale: Septic shock is distributive, with vasodilation, decreased SVR, and relative
hypovolemia.
4. Which lab marker is most specific for myocardial injury?
A. CK-MB
B. Troponin I
C. LDH
D. AST
Answer: B
Rationale: Troponin I is highly specific and sensitive for myocardial injury.
5. In atrial fibrillation, the primary risk is:
A. Heart block
B. Stroke
C. Myocardial infarction
D. Ventricular fibrillation
Answer: B
Rationale: Atrial fibrillation leads to turbulent blood flow and clot formation, increasing stroke
risk.
6. A patient with acute pulmonary edema from left-sided HF should be placed in:
A. Supine position
B. Trendelenburg position
C. Upright position
D. Lateral decubitus position
Answer: C
Rationale: Upright positioning improves ventilation and reduces pulmonary venous pressure.
7. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) leads to:
A. Alveolar hyperinflation
B. Pulmonary hypertension
practice exam 2026
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C. Right-sided heart failure
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Rationale: COPD causes hyperinflated alveoli, increases pulmonary pressures, and can lead to
cor pulmonale.
8. Which is a classic finding in asthma exacerbation?
A. Productive cough with purulent sputum
B. Wheezing and dyspnea
C. Clubbing of fingers
D. Cyanosis only
Answer: B
Rationale: Wheezing and dyspnea result from airway inflammation and bronchoconstriction.
9. A patient with acute kidney injury has the following lab values: BUN 55 mg/dL, creatinine 4.2
mg/dL. What does this indicate?
A. Normal renal function
B. Severe renal impairment
C. Hepatic failure
D. Dehydration only
Answer: B
Rationale: Elevated BUN and creatinine indicate decreased glomerular filtration and acute
kidney injury.
10. Which is a common cause of prerenal AKI?
A. Glomerulonephritis
B. Dehydration
C. Nephrotoxic drugs
D. Urinary obstruction
Answer: B
Rationale: Prerenal AKI results from decreased renal perfusion, commonly due to dehydration
or hypovolemia.
practice exam 2026
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11. Hyperthyroidism is most often caused by:
A. Graves’ disease
B. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
C. Iodine deficiency
D. Pituitary adenoma
Answer: A
Rationale: Graves’ disease is an autoimmune disorder causing thyroid hormone overproduction.
12. A patient presents with exophthalmos, weight loss, heat intolerance, and palpitations. Most
likely diagnosis:
A. Hypothyroidism
B. Hyperthyroidism
C. Cushing’s syndrome
D. Addison’s disease
Answer: B
Rationale: Classic hyperthyroidism manifestations include increased metabolism and
sympathetic activity.
13. Which electrolyte imbalance is most commonly associated with Addison’s disease?
A. Hypernatremia
B. Hyponatremia
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Hypophosphatemia
Answer: B
Rationale: Addison’s disease causes aldosterone deficiency, leading to sodium loss and
hyponatremia.
14. Diabetes mellitus type 1 is characterized by:
A. Insulin resistance
B. Absolute insulin deficiency
C. Excess glucagon only
D. Hypoglycemia only
practice exam 2026
NSG 3850, Patho 2 Exam 1 Study Guide (NEW UPDATED
VERSION) LATEST ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS (VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS)-
GUARANTEED PASS A+
NSG 3850 Exam 1 – Pathophysiology II
Practice Questions
1. A patient presents with left-sided heart failure. Which is the hallmark clinical manifestation?
A. Peripheral edema
B. Pulmonary congestion
C. Jugular vein distension
D. Hepatomegaly
Answer: B
Rationale: Left-sided heart failure leads to pulmonary congestion due to blood backing up into
the lungs, causing dyspnea and crackles.
2. Right-sided heart failure is often caused by:
A. Chronic hypertension
B. Left-sided heart failure
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. Both B and C
Answer: D
Rationale: Right-sided HF often results from left-sided HF or pulmonary conditions (cor
pulmonale), causing peripheral edema and hepatomegaly.
3. Which type of shock is characterized by severe vasodilation and low systemic vascular
resistance?
A. Hypovolemic
B. Cardiogenic
C. Distributive (septic)
D. Obstructive
practice exam 2026
,2|Page
Answer: C
Rationale: Septic shock is distributive, with vasodilation, decreased SVR, and relative
hypovolemia.
4. Which lab marker is most specific for myocardial injury?
A. CK-MB
B. Troponin I
C. LDH
D. AST
Answer: B
Rationale: Troponin I is highly specific and sensitive for myocardial injury.
5. In atrial fibrillation, the primary risk is:
A. Heart block
B. Stroke
C. Myocardial infarction
D. Ventricular fibrillation
Answer: B
Rationale: Atrial fibrillation leads to turbulent blood flow and clot formation, increasing stroke
risk.
6. A patient with acute pulmonary edema from left-sided HF should be placed in:
A. Supine position
B. Trendelenburg position
C. Upright position
D. Lateral decubitus position
Answer: C
Rationale: Upright positioning improves ventilation and reduces pulmonary venous pressure.
7. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) leads to:
A. Alveolar hyperinflation
B. Pulmonary hypertension
practice exam 2026
,3|Page
C. Right-sided heart failure
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Rationale: COPD causes hyperinflated alveoli, increases pulmonary pressures, and can lead to
cor pulmonale.
8. Which is a classic finding in asthma exacerbation?
A. Productive cough with purulent sputum
B. Wheezing and dyspnea
C. Clubbing of fingers
D. Cyanosis only
Answer: B
Rationale: Wheezing and dyspnea result from airway inflammation and bronchoconstriction.
9. A patient with acute kidney injury has the following lab values: BUN 55 mg/dL, creatinine 4.2
mg/dL. What does this indicate?
A. Normal renal function
B. Severe renal impairment
C. Hepatic failure
D. Dehydration only
Answer: B
Rationale: Elevated BUN and creatinine indicate decreased glomerular filtration and acute
kidney injury.
10. Which is a common cause of prerenal AKI?
A. Glomerulonephritis
B. Dehydration
C. Nephrotoxic drugs
D. Urinary obstruction
Answer: B
Rationale: Prerenal AKI results from decreased renal perfusion, commonly due to dehydration
or hypovolemia.
practice exam 2026
, 4|Page
11. Hyperthyroidism is most often caused by:
A. Graves’ disease
B. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
C. Iodine deficiency
D. Pituitary adenoma
Answer: A
Rationale: Graves’ disease is an autoimmune disorder causing thyroid hormone overproduction.
12. A patient presents with exophthalmos, weight loss, heat intolerance, and palpitations. Most
likely diagnosis:
A. Hypothyroidism
B. Hyperthyroidism
C. Cushing’s syndrome
D. Addison’s disease
Answer: B
Rationale: Classic hyperthyroidism manifestations include increased metabolism and
sympathetic activity.
13. Which electrolyte imbalance is most commonly associated with Addison’s disease?
A. Hypernatremia
B. Hyponatremia
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Hypophosphatemia
Answer: B
Rationale: Addison’s disease causes aldosterone deficiency, leading to sodium loss and
hyponatremia.
14. Diabetes mellitus type 1 is characterized by:
A. Insulin resistance
B. Absolute insulin deficiency
C. Excess glucagon only
D. Hypoglycemia only
practice exam 2026
