FISDAP PARAMEDIC OB/GYN STUDY GUIDE 2025/2026 UPDATE|
COMPREHENSIVE QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED ANSWERS (COMPLETE SOLUTIONS)
GUARANTEED SUCCESS |GRADE A+!! (100% ACCURATE) GET IT RIGHT!!
Question 1
Which of the following would be considered the most significant risk factor for a high-risk
pregnancy?
A) Maternal age of 28 years
B) History of regular exercise
C) Gestational diabetes
D) First-time pregnancy (primigravida)
E) Single gestation
Correct Answer: C) Gestational diabetes
Rationale: High-risk pregnancies are defined by factors that increase the likelihood of
complications for the mother or the fetus. Gestational diabetes is a significant medical
condition that can lead to macrosomia (large baby), preeclampsia, and neonatal
hypoglycemia. Other high-risk factors include advanced maternal age (typically >35),
medical conditions like chronic hypertension, preeclampsia, multiple gestations
(twins/triplets), and substance abuse.
Question 2
A 24-year-old pregnant patient presents with a fever, uterine tenderness, and foul-smelling
amniotic fluid. You should suspect:
A) Pyelonephritis
B) Preeclampsia
C) Chorioamnionitis
D) Placenta Previa
E) Ectopic Pregnancy
Correct Answer: C) Chorioamnionitis
Rationale: Chorioamnionitis is an inflammation or infection of the amniotic sac and its
contents. Clinical manifestations typically include maternal fever, tachycardia, uterine
tenderness, and foul-smelling vaginal discharge. It is a serious condition that requires
prompt medical intervention to prevent maternal sepsis and neonatal infection.
Question 3
Which of the following patients is at the highest risk for developing Chorioamnionitis?
A) A 38-year-old having her fourth child
B) A young, nulliparous patient with an extended duration of labor
) A patient with gestational diabetes at 32 weeks
D) A patient with a history of previous C-sections
E) A patient undergoing a scheduled induction at 39 weeks
, 2
Correct Answer: B) A young, nulliparous patient with an extended duration of labor
Rationale: Risk factors for chorioamnionitis include young maternal age, nulliparity (first-
time giving birth), and, most significantly, a prolonged duration of labor or prolonged
rupture of membranes. The longer the amniotic sac is ruptured, the higher the risk of
ascending bacteria from the vagina causing infection.
Question 4
A pregnant patient at 30 weeks gestation presents with chills, flank pain, and hematuria. What is
the most likely diagnosis?
A) Chorioamnionitis
B) Pyelonephritis
C) Appendicitis
D) Preeclampsia
E) Cystitis
Correct Answer: B) Pyelonephritis
Rationale: Pyelonephritis is a kidney infection that is common during pregnancy due to
physiological changes that cause urinary stasis. Classic signs and symptoms include fever,
chills, flank pain/tenderness (often at the costovertebral angle), urinary frequency, urgency,
and hematuria or dysuria. It requires aggressive treatment to prevent preterm labor.
Question 5
When managing a pregnant patient in her 26th week of gestation who has suffered significant
trauma, how should she be positioned on the backboard?
A) Supine with the head elevated 30 degrees
B) Prone to protect the airway
C) Supine with the backboard tilted 15 degrees to the left
D) Right lateral recumbent
E) Trendelenburg position
Correct Answer: C) Supine with the backboard tilted 15 degrees to the left
Rationale: After the 20th–24th week of pregnancy, the heavy uterus can compress the
inferior vena cava when the patient is supine (Supine Hypotensive Syndrome). In the
setting of trauma requiring spinal immobilization, the backboard should be tilted 15
degrees to the left to displace the uterus. This maintains venous return to the heart and
prevents maternal hypotension and fetal hypoxia.
Question 6
A newborn has just been delivered and meconium is present. The newborn is limp, has a weak
cry, and a heart rate of 90. What is the priority intervention?
A) Administer high-flow oxygen via blow-by
B) Dry the infant vigorously to stimulate breathing
, 3
C) Perform immediate chest compressions
D) Insert an ET tube and suction the meconium
E) Provide positive pressure ventilation via BVM
Correct Answer: D) Insert an ET tube and suction the meconium
Rationale: According to neonatal resuscitation guidelines, if meconium is present and the
newborn is "depressed" (defined as having poor muscle tone, inadequate respiratory effort,
or a heart rate < 100), the clinician should perform direct tracheal suctioning via an
endotracheal tube to clear the airway before the infant takes its first breath and aspirates
the meconium into the lungs.
Question 7
A 2-year-old presents with hoarseness, inspiratory stridor, and a distinct "barking" cough. Which
of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Epiglottitis
B) Asthma
C) Croup
D) Bronchiolitis
E) Foreign body airway obstruction
Correct Answer: C) Croup
Rationale: Croup (laryngotracheobronchitis) is an upper respiratory viral infection that
typically affects children between 6 months and 3 years of age. It is characterized by edema
of the subglottic space, resulting in hoarseness, inspiratory stridor, and a hallmark "seal-
like" barking cough. Epiglottitis is bacterial and usually presents with a higher fever and
drooling.
Question 8
Which of the following is an appropriate intervention for a 3-year-old with moderate to severe
croup?
A) Administer nebulized Albuterol
B) Perform immediate needle cricothyrotomy
C) Administer nebulized racemic epinephrine
D) Place the patient in a tripod position and visualize the airway
E) Provide deep tracheal suctioning
Correct Answer: C) Administer nebulized racemic epinephrine
Rationale: The treatment for croup focuses on reducing airway edema. For moderate to
severe cases with stridor at rest, nebulized racemic epinephrine or nebulized L-epinephrine
is indicated to cause vasoconstriction and reduce swelling. Nebulized saline can be used for
mild cases to keep the patient calm.
, 4
Question 9
A 5-year-old presents with a sudden onset of a high fever (103°F), muffled voice, drooling, and
is sitting in a tripod position. You should suspect:
A) Croup
B) Bacterial Pneumonia
C) Epiglottitis
D) Anaphylaxis
E) Retropharyngeal abscess
Correct Answer: C) Epiglottitis
Rationale: Epiglottitis is a life-threatening bacterial infection of the epiglottis. It typically
affects children ages 2 to 7. Hallmark signs include a sudden high fever, "quiet" wet
stridor, muffled ("hot potato") voice, difficulty swallowing (dysphagia), and significant
drooling because the patient cannot swallow their secretions. The tripod position is
common as the patient attempts to maintain an open airway.
Question 10
What is the priority intervention for a pediatric patient suspected of having epiglottitis who is in
respiratory distress?
A) Attempt to visualize the airway with a laryngoscope
B) Perform a blind finger sweep to clear secretions
C) Keep the child calm and provide BVM ventilation with 100% oxygen
D) Administer nebulized Racemic Epinephrine
E) Start an IV and administer 20 ml/kg fluid bolus
Correct Answer: C) Keep the child calm and provide BVM ventilation with 100% oxygen
Rationale: The most critical aspect of managing epiglottitis is to avoid agitating the child, as
any stress (including oral exams) can trigger total airway collapse. If the child is in distress,
gentle BVM ventilation with 100% oxygen is necessary. Do NOT attempt to visualize the
airway or insert anything into the mouth.
Question 11
You are assessing a child and notice bruises in various stages of healing, circular burns on the
back, and the parents' behavior is unusual. What is your legal obligation?
A) Confront the parents about the injuries
B) Document the findings and report suspected abuse to the appropriate authorities
C) Wait for the hospital staff to make the report
D) Ask the child if they are being hit in front of the parents
E) Only report if you see an active injury being inflicted
Correct Answer: B) Document the findings and report suspected abuse to the appropriate
authorities
COMPREHENSIVE QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED ANSWERS (COMPLETE SOLUTIONS)
GUARANTEED SUCCESS |GRADE A+!! (100% ACCURATE) GET IT RIGHT!!
Question 1
Which of the following would be considered the most significant risk factor for a high-risk
pregnancy?
A) Maternal age of 28 years
B) History of regular exercise
C) Gestational diabetes
D) First-time pregnancy (primigravida)
E) Single gestation
Correct Answer: C) Gestational diabetes
Rationale: High-risk pregnancies are defined by factors that increase the likelihood of
complications for the mother or the fetus. Gestational diabetes is a significant medical
condition that can lead to macrosomia (large baby), preeclampsia, and neonatal
hypoglycemia. Other high-risk factors include advanced maternal age (typically >35),
medical conditions like chronic hypertension, preeclampsia, multiple gestations
(twins/triplets), and substance abuse.
Question 2
A 24-year-old pregnant patient presents with a fever, uterine tenderness, and foul-smelling
amniotic fluid. You should suspect:
A) Pyelonephritis
B) Preeclampsia
C) Chorioamnionitis
D) Placenta Previa
E) Ectopic Pregnancy
Correct Answer: C) Chorioamnionitis
Rationale: Chorioamnionitis is an inflammation or infection of the amniotic sac and its
contents. Clinical manifestations typically include maternal fever, tachycardia, uterine
tenderness, and foul-smelling vaginal discharge. It is a serious condition that requires
prompt medical intervention to prevent maternal sepsis and neonatal infection.
Question 3
Which of the following patients is at the highest risk for developing Chorioamnionitis?
A) A 38-year-old having her fourth child
B) A young, nulliparous patient with an extended duration of labor
) A patient with gestational diabetes at 32 weeks
D) A patient with a history of previous C-sections
E) A patient undergoing a scheduled induction at 39 weeks
, 2
Correct Answer: B) A young, nulliparous patient with an extended duration of labor
Rationale: Risk factors for chorioamnionitis include young maternal age, nulliparity (first-
time giving birth), and, most significantly, a prolonged duration of labor or prolonged
rupture of membranes. The longer the amniotic sac is ruptured, the higher the risk of
ascending bacteria from the vagina causing infection.
Question 4
A pregnant patient at 30 weeks gestation presents with chills, flank pain, and hematuria. What is
the most likely diagnosis?
A) Chorioamnionitis
B) Pyelonephritis
C) Appendicitis
D) Preeclampsia
E) Cystitis
Correct Answer: B) Pyelonephritis
Rationale: Pyelonephritis is a kidney infection that is common during pregnancy due to
physiological changes that cause urinary stasis. Classic signs and symptoms include fever,
chills, flank pain/tenderness (often at the costovertebral angle), urinary frequency, urgency,
and hematuria or dysuria. It requires aggressive treatment to prevent preterm labor.
Question 5
When managing a pregnant patient in her 26th week of gestation who has suffered significant
trauma, how should she be positioned on the backboard?
A) Supine with the head elevated 30 degrees
B) Prone to protect the airway
C) Supine with the backboard tilted 15 degrees to the left
D) Right lateral recumbent
E) Trendelenburg position
Correct Answer: C) Supine with the backboard tilted 15 degrees to the left
Rationale: After the 20th–24th week of pregnancy, the heavy uterus can compress the
inferior vena cava when the patient is supine (Supine Hypotensive Syndrome). In the
setting of trauma requiring spinal immobilization, the backboard should be tilted 15
degrees to the left to displace the uterus. This maintains venous return to the heart and
prevents maternal hypotension and fetal hypoxia.
Question 6
A newborn has just been delivered and meconium is present. The newborn is limp, has a weak
cry, and a heart rate of 90. What is the priority intervention?
A) Administer high-flow oxygen via blow-by
B) Dry the infant vigorously to stimulate breathing
, 3
C) Perform immediate chest compressions
D) Insert an ET tube and suction the meconium
E) Provide positive pressure ventilation via BVM
Correct Answer: D) Insert an ET tube and suction the meconium
Rationale: According to neonatal resuscitation guidelines, if meconium is present and the
newborn is "depressed" (defined as having poor muscle tone, inadequate respiratory effort,
or a heart rate < 100), the clinician should perform direct tracheal suctioning via an
endotracheal tube to clear the airway before the infant takes its first breath and aspirates
the meconium into the lungs.
Question 7
A 2-year-old presents with hoarseness, inspiratory stridor, and a distinct "barking" cough. Which
of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Epiglottitis
B) Asthma
C) Croup
D) Bronchiolitis
E) Foreign body airway obstruction
Correct Answer: C) Croup
Rationale: Croup (laryngotracheobronchitis) is an upper respiratory viral infection that
typically affects children between 6 months and 3 years of age. It is characterized by edema
of the subglottic space, resulting in hoarseness, inspiratory stridor, and a hallmark "seal-
like" barking cough. Epiglottitis is bacterial and usually presents with a higher fever and
drooling.
Question 8
Which of the following is an appropriate intervention for a 3-year-old with moderate to severe
croup?
A) Administer nebulized Albuterol
B) Perform immediate needle cricothyrotomy
C) Administer nebulized racemic epinephrine
D) Place the patient in a tripod position and visualize the airway
E) Provide deep tracheal suctioning
Correct Answer: C) Administer nebulized racemic epinephrine
Rationale: The treatment for croup focuses on reducing airway edema. For moderate to
severe cases with stridor at rest, nebulized racemic epinephrine or nebulized L-epinephrine
is indicated to cause vasoconstriction and reduce swelling. Nebulized saline can be used for
mild cases to keep the patient calm.
, 4
Question 9
A 5-year-old presents with a sudden onset of a high fever (103°F), muffled voice, drooling, and
is sitting in a tripod position. You should suspect:
A) Croup
B) Bacterial Pneumonia
C) Epiglottitis
D) Anaphylaxis
E) Retropharyngeal abscess
Correct Answer: C) Epiglottitis
Rationale: Epiglottitis is a life-threatening bacterial infection of the epiglottis. It typically
affects children ages 2 to 7. Hallmark signs include a sudden high fever, "quiet" wet
stridor, muffled ("hot potato") voice, difficulty swallowing (dysphagia), and significant
drooling because the patient cannot swallow their secretions. The tripod position is
common as the patient attempts to maintain an open airway.
Question 10
What is the priority intervention for a pediatric patient suspected of having epiglottitis who is in
respiratory distress?
A) Attempt to visualize the airway with a laryngoscope
B) Perform a blind finger sweep to clear secretions
C) Keep the child calm and provide BVM ventilation with 100% oxygen
D) Administer nebulized Racemic Epinephrine
E) Start an IV and administer 20 ml/kg fluid bolus
Correct Answer: C) Keep the child calm and provide BVM ventilation with 100% oxygen
Rationale: The most critical aspect of managing epiglottitis is to avoid agitating the child, as
any stress (including oral exams) can trigger total airway collapse. If the child is in distress,
gentle BVM ventilation with 100% oxygen is necessary. Do NOT attempt to visualize the
airway or insert anything into the mouth.
Question 11
You are assessing a child and notice bruises in various stages of healing, circular burns on the
back, and the parents' behavior is unusual. What is your legal obligation?
A) Confront the parents about the injuries
B) Document the findings and report suspected abuse to the appropriate authorities
C) Wait for the hospital staff to make the report
D) Ask the child if they are being hit in front of the parents
E) Only report if you see an active injury being inflicted
Correct Answer: B) Document the findings and report suspected abuse to the appropriate
authorities
