CEA EXAM QUESTION BANK | 2026/2027
CURRENTLY TESTING ACCURATE REAL
EXAM QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED
ANSWERS GRADED A+ | GUARANTEED
EXCELLENCE PASS
An 18-year-old presents with acne. He notes that he washes his face with a mild
skin cleanser 3 to 4 times daily, however the acne persists and has worsened. The
nurse practitioner explains that: frequent facial scrubs can worsen acne.
Rationale: Over-washing the face can contribute to acne or exacerbate existing
acne symptoms. Over-washing can irritate the skin, causing redness,
inflammation, and sensitivity. This can worsen existing acne lesions and delay
healing.
Which of the following refers to the primary access point of medical care patients
are encouraged to use to aid in providing continuity and reduction of cost per the
Affordable Care Act?
The Medical Home
Rationale: The medical home reduces cost by providing continuity of care,
reducing overtesting, duplicate testing, and aids with longitudinal management
of the patient. The other options all increase these cost-burdening elements and
should be avoided unless care through the medical home is not a reasonable or
appropriate option.
,An otherwise healthy African American adult male has been diagnosed with
hypertension. He has been restricting his salt intake, eating a DASH (Dietary
Approaches to Stop Hypertension) diet, and exercising more, but his blood
pressure is still elevated. Which is the BEST medication to prescribe him?
Calcium channel blocker
Rationale: African American patients per JNC8 Hypertension Guidelines should
be managed with a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker such as amlodipine
(Norvasc) as first line management therapy for hypertension not at goal with
DASH and lifestyle modifications.
What is the definitive treatment for uncomplicated skin abscess on the arm?
Incision and drainage
Rationale: The definitive treatment for an uncomplicated skin abscess is to open
and drain the contents. The body will then re-approximate by secondary
intention once the contents has been evacuated. Gram negative coverage is not
recommended for an area typically associated with gram-positive flora.
The patient is exhibiting a productive cough and a low-grade fever. Chest X-ray on
PA view shows a left lower chest area of consolidation adjacent to the left border
of the heart approximately 2 rib spaces above the costophrenic angle. The lateral
x-ray view shows this lesion absent of the window posterior to the cardiac
silhouette. Which is the most likely location of this area of focal consolidation?
*Left upper lobe apex
*Right middle lobe
*Left upper lobe lingula
,*Left lower lobe
Left upper lobe lingula
Ratonale: Lingular consolidation is described in this question precisely. If the
cardiac margin/silhouette is obliterated by the mass, the lesion is either right
middle lobe or left upper lobe lingula.
The inability to fully relax the myocardium during relaxation is a trademark of
which of the following diagnoses?
Diastolic dysfunction
Rationale: The inability for the heart to relax is a trademark of the diagnosis of
diastolic dysfunction and is common in patients with thickened hypertrophic
myocardium.
Your patient has been diagnosed with a 4.5cm ascending aortic aneurysm. Which
medical imaging is considered standard of care for serial surveillance?
CT angiography of the chest
Rationale: CT angiography is considered the standard of care for measuring
vascular luminal dimensions with contrast. CT PE protocol is not timed properly
for the aorta (it's timed for the pulmonary artery). Although a plain film is able
to catch large aneurysms at times, they are not able to provide multi-axis
reconstruction needed to accurately measure the size. Transesophageal echo is
not needed to accurately measure the aorta and requires the patient to undergo
sedation which is unnecessary.
, Which of the following medications does not cause beta 1 stimulation?
phenylephrine
Rationale: Phenylephrine only stimulates alpha 1 receptors. The remaining three
all have beta receptor activity.
A 50-year-old woman with a history of hypertension presents with dyspnea on
exertion and orthopnea. On examination, she has jugular venous distention and
bilateral crackles on lung auscultation. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Congestive heart failure
Rationale: Of the available options, the most accurate response is congestive
heart failure as it is signifying both a right ventricular back up with jugular
venous extension and crackles on lung assault, which are suggestive of left
ventricular back up. it is possible the patient may have an acute myocardial
infarction that precipitated this, however, a patient has not described that,
rather is only describing dyspnea on exertion and orthopnea, which both speak
to a state of fluid overload. The only appropriate response of these available is
congestive heart failure.
Your patient with a history of HFrEF (heart failure with reduced ejection fraction)
with an ejection fraction of 40% who is also not on optimal medical therapy has
been diagnosed with a myocardial infarction this admission and received
emergent placement of a drug-eluting stent to the left anterior descending artery.
As the medical home who will manage this patient after discharge, which
medication strategy would you expect to be a priority in the patient's care?
Ordering a transthoracic echocardiogram and order a Lifevest if EF is less than
35%
CURRENTLY TESTING ACCURATE REAL
EXAM QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED
ANSWERS GRADED A+ | GUARANTEED
EXCELLENCE PASS
An 18-year-old presents with acne. He notes that he washes his face with a mild
skin cleanser 3 to 4 times daily, however the acne persists and has worsened. The
nurse practitioner explains that: frequent facial scrubs can worsen acne.
Rationale: Over-washing the face can contribute to acne or exacerbate existing
acne symptoms. Over-washing can irritate the skin, causing redness,
inflammation, and sensitivity. This can worsen existing acne lesions and delay
healing.
Which of the following refers to the primary access point of medical care patients
are encouraged to use to aid in providing continuity and reduction of cost per the
Affordable Care Act?
The Medical Home
Rationale: The medical home reduces cost by providing continuity of care,
reducing overtesting, duplicate testing, and aids with longitudinal management
of the patient. The other options all increase these cost-burdening elements and
should be avoided unless care through the medical home is not a reasonable or
appropriate option.
,An otherwise healthy African American adult male has been diagnosed with
hypertension. He has been restricting his salt intake, eating a DASH (Dietary
Approaches to Stop Hypertension) diet, and exercising more, but his blood
pressure is still elevated. Which is the BEST medication to prescribe him?
Calcium channel blocker
Rationale: African American patients per JNC8 Hypertension Guidelines should
be managed with a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker such as amlodipine
(Norvasc) as first line management therapy for hypertension not at goal with
DASH and lifestyle modifications.
What is the definitive treatment for uncomplicated skin abscess on the arm?
Incision and drainage
Rationale: The definitive treatment for an uncomplicated skin abscess is to open
and drain the contents. The body will then re-approximate by secondary
intention once the contents has been evacuated. Gram negative coverage is not
recommended for an area typically associated with gram-positive flora.
The patient is exhibiting a productive cough and a low-grade fever. Chest X-ray on
PA view shows a left lower chest area of consolidation adjacent to the left border
of the heart approximately 2 rib spaces above the costophrenic angle. The lateral
x-ray view shows this lesion absent of the window posterior to the cardiac
silhouette. Which is the most likely location of this area of focal consolidation?
*Left upper lobe apex
*Right middle lobe
*Left upper lobe lingula
,*Left lower lobe
Left upper lobe lingula
Ratonale: Lingular consolidation is described in this question precisely. If the
cardiac margin/silhouette is obliterated by the mass, the lesion is either right
middle lobe or left upper lobe lingula.
The inability to fully relax the myocardium during relaxation is a trademark of
which of the following diagnoses?
Diastolic dysfunction
Rationale: The inability for the heart to relax is a trademark of the diagnosis of
diastolic dysfunction and is common in patients with thickened hypertrophic
myocardium.
Your patient has been diagnosed with a 4.5cm ascending aortic aneurysm. Which
medical imaging is considered standard of care for serial surveillance?
CT angiography of the chest
Rationale: CT angiography is considered the standard of care for measuring
vascular luminal dimensions with contrast. CT PE protocol is not timed properly
for the aorta (it's timed for the pulmonary artery). Although a plain film is able
to catch large aneurysms at times, they are not able to provide multi-axis
reconstruction needed to accurately measure the size. Transesophageal echo is
not needed to accurately measure the aorta and requires the patient to undergo
sedation which is unnecessary.
, Which of the following medications does not cause beta 1 stimulation?
phenylephrine
Rationale: Phenylephrine only stimulates alpha 1 receptors. The remaining three
all have beta receptor activity.
A 50-year-old woman with a history of hypertension presents with dyspnea on
exertion and orthopnea. On examination, she has jugular venous distention and
bilateral crackles on lung auscultation. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Congestive heart failure
Rationale: Of the available options, the most accurate response is congestive
heart failure as it is signifying both a right ventricular back up with jugular
venous extension and crackles on lung assault, which are suggestive of left
ventricular back up. it is possible the patient may have an acute myocardial
infarction that precipitated this, however, a patient has not described that,
rather is only describing dyspnea on exertion and orthopnea, which both speak
to a state of fluid overload. The only appropriate response of these available is
congestive heart failure.
Your patient with a history of HFrEF (heart failure with reduced ejection fraction)
with an ejection fraction of 40% who is also not on optimal medical therapy has
been diagnosed with a myocardial infarction this admission and received
emergent placement of a drug-eluting stent to the left anterior descending artery.
As the medical home who will manage this patient after discharge, which
medication strategy would you expect to be a priority in the patient's care?
Ordering a transthoracic echocardiogram and order a Lifevest if EF is less than
35%
