Answers Latest Updated (Graded A+)-
Galen College of Nursing.
1. The nurse would call the primary care provider immediately for which
laboratory result?
1. Hgb = 16 g/dL for a male client
2. Hct = 22% for a female client
3. WBC = 9 × 103 /mL3
4. Platelets = 300 × 103 /mL3
- Correct Answer: 2.
Rationale: Option 2 is very low and can lead to death. The client's red blood
cells participate in oxygenation. Options 1, 3, and 4 are within normal range
and should not be reported to the primary care provider.
2. A 78-year-old male client needs to complete a 24-hour urine specimen. In
planning his care, the nurse realizes that which measure is most important? 1.
Instruct the client to empty his bladder and save this voiding to start the
collection.
2. Instruct the client to use sterile individual containers to collect the urine.
3. Post a sign stating "Save All Urine" in the bathroom.
4. Keep the urine specimen in the refrigerator.
- Correct Answer: 3.
Rationale: Option 3 is the most important nursing measure. This will inform
the staff that the client is on a 24-hour urine collection. Option 1 is not
,appropriate since the first voided specimen is to be discarded. Option 2 is not
an appropriate nursing measure since the specimen container is clean not
sterile, and one container is needed—not individual containers. Option 4 is
inappropriate because some 24-hour urine collections do not require
refrigeration.
3. The client has a urinary health problem. Which procedure is performed
using indirect visualization? 1. Intravenous pyelography (IVP)
2. Kidneys, ureter, bladder (KUB)
3. Retrograde pyelography
4. Cystoscopy
- Correct Answer: 2.
Rationale: A KUB is an x-ray of the kidneys, ureters, and bladder. This does
not require direct visualization. Option 1 is an IVP, an intravenous pyelogram,
which requires the injection of a contrast media. Option 3 is a retrograde
pyelography, which requires the injection of a contrast media. Option 4 is a
cystoscopy, which uses a lighted instrument (cystoscope) inserted through the
urethra, resulting in direct visualization.
4. Which noninvasive procedure provides information about the physiology or
function of an organ?
1. Angiography
2. Computerized tomography (CT)
3. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
4. Positron emission tomography (PET)
- Correct Answer: 4.
Rationale: This type of nuclear scan demonstrates the ability of tissues to
absorb the chemical to indicate the physiology and function of an organ.
Option 1 is an invasive procedure that focuses on blood flow through an organ.
, Options 2 and 3 provide information about density of tissue to help distinguish
between normal and abnormal tissue of an organ.
5. When assisting with a bone marrow biopsy, the nurse should take which
action?
1. Assist the client to a right side-lying position after the procedure.
2. Observe for signs of dyspnea, pallor, and coughing.
3. Assess for bleeding and hematoma formation for several days after the
procedure.
4. Stand in front of the client and support the back of the neck and knees.
- Correct Answer: 3.
Rationale: Bone marrow aspiration includes deep penetration into soft tissue
and large bones such as the sternum and iliac crest. This penetration can result
in bleeding. The client should be observed for bleeding in the days following
the procedure. Option 1 is a nursing action during a liver biopsy. Option 2 is a
nursing action for a thoracentesis, and Option 4 is a nursing action for a
lumbar puncture.
6. During an assessment, the nurse learns that the client has a history of liver
disease. Which diagnostic tests might be indicated for this client? Select all
that apply.
1. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)
2. Myoglobin
3. Cholesterol
4. Ammonia
5. Brain natriuretic peptide or B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP)
- Correct Answer: 1 and 4.
Rationale: ALT is an enzyme that contributes to protein and carbohydrate
metabolism. An increase in the enzyme indicates damage to the liver. The liver