NCCQ UK Theory Exam reviewed 2026/2027
334 Questions with Answers Graded A+
1. In terms of movement what type of synovial joint is the sternoclavicular joint? [1 Mark] -
ANSWER-Gliding Joint
2. The spleen is part of which body system? [1 Mark] - ANSWER-The lymphatic system
3. What are the two upper chambers of the heart called? [1 Mark] - ANSWER-The left and
right atrium (or the left and right atria, or the left and right auricles)
4. How many layers of tissue make up the pericardium? [1 Mark] - ANSWER-Two
5. Name the circular muscle that controls the opening of the anus? [1 Mark] - ANSWER-
The anal sphincter
6. What is an ovum? [1 Mark] - ANSWER-An egg cell
7. Which component of a medical term follows the root word? [1 Mark] - ANSWER-Suffix
8. How much is being indicated by the use of the prefix 'hemi-' ? [1 Mark] - ANSWER-Half
9. Give terms that indicate the front and back view of the body or an organ. [2 Marks] -
ANSWER-Anterior (front)
Posterior (back)
10. Name the two types of bone found in the femur. [2 Marks] - ANSWER-Cancellous bone
Compact bone
11. How many root words are there in the medical term 'gastroenteritis'? State what they are
and to what they pertain. [3 Marks] - ANSWER-Two:
Gastr - Stomach
Enter - Intestines
12. What is the correct medical term relating to the side view of the body? [1 Mark] -
ANSWER-Lateral
13. What is the meaning of the suffix '-rhaphy'? [1 Mark] - ANSWER-Suture
14. What is the root word in the medical term 'blepharitis' and to what does it refer? [2
Marks] - ANSWER-Blephar - relates to the eyelid
15. Identify the three root terms in this group. Circle your answers. [3 Marks]
, pre
nephr
my
osis
pexy
cephal
dys
plasia
semi - ANSWER-nephr
my
cephal
16. Differentiate between the body position terms 'medial' and 'median'. [2 Marks] -
ANSWER-Median is the (imaginary) midline (middle line) passing through the body
from between the eyes to between the feet.
Medial means pertaining to (near) the median line (central line)
If a condition is documented as 'probable', 'presumed' or 'treat as', how should this be
coded?
17. [1 Mark] - ANSWER-The condition should be coded as a firm diagnosis
18. Name the two cross references which appear in the ICD-10 4th Edition Alphabetical
Index. [2 Marks] - ANSWER-See
19. What does the abbreviation HFQ used in the Alphabetical Index and Tabular List of the
OPCS-4.7 classification signify about the procedural statement given by the consultant?
[2 Marks] - ANSWER-Signifies that a statement may be further qualified/described in a
number of ways, which will not affect the code assignment, i.e. it makes no difference
how much more specific the clinician is in their statement, there is only one code option
for that intervention in OPCS4
20. State the three areas in OPCS-4.7 Tabular List, Volume 1 where the use of .8 and .9 is not
permitted. [3 Marks] - ANSWER-Extended categories
High Cost Drugs categories
Category Y97 or Radiology with contrast
21. When a patient is diagnosed with primary malignant neoplasm of the colon and the
breast, yet the responsible consultant is unable to verify which of the malignancies
predominate, what should be coded and how would it be sequenced? Actual codes are not
required. [2 Marks] - ANSWER-Independent Primary code
Primary neoplasm site codes
or
Malignant neoplasm of independent (primary) multiple sites or C97.X
Malignant neoplasm of colon or C18.9
Malignant neoplasm of breast or C50.9
or
, Malignant neoplasm of independent (primary) multiple sites or C97.X
Malignant neoplasm of breast or C50.9
Malignant neoplasm of colon or C18.9
22. Describe the code(s) required when a patient receives rehabilitation assessment and
rehabilitation delivery within the same admission and explain the use. [2 Marks] -
ANSWER-Only one code is required, with that code being from rehabilitation delivery
U50-U54, as it is assumed the assessment would have been carried out before the
rehabilitation commenced
23. In the ICD-10 Tabular List (Volume III) what does the use of the word "with" indicate in
the code description? [1 Mark] - ANSWER-The term indicates that both elements in the
code description must be present in the diagnostic statement in order to assign the code
24. How must an abandoned or incomplete intervention/procedure be coded? [1 Mark] -
ANSWER-Abandoned, failed or incomplete procedures or incomplete
procedure/intervention must be coded to the stage reached at the time of abandonment.
25. What is the full definition of the primary diagnosis? [8 Marks] - ANSWER-The first
diagnosis field(s) of the coded clinical record (the primary diagnosis) will contain the
main condition treated or investigated during the relevant episode of healthcare.
Where a definitive diagnosis has not been made by the responsible clinician the main
symptom, abnormal finding, or problem should be recorded in the first diagnosis field of
the coded clinical record.
26. Name five different types of resource uses that might be employed during radiological
examinations that are identified within the OPCS-4.7 code range Y97 Radiology with
contrast and Y98 Radiology procedures. [5 Marks] - ANSWER-Number of body areas
scanned/examined
Pre and post contrast
Post contrast
Duration of procedure
Extensive repositioning
Mobile Procedures
Intra-operative procedures
27. How do synonyms, alternative words, or explanatory phrases appear in the ICD-10
Tabular List, Volume 1? [1 Mark] - ANSWER-They appear in Square Brackets or [ ]
28. Give two examples of nuclear medicine imaging procedures that must always be coded
when documented by the responsible consultant. [2 Marks] - ANSWER-Positron
Emission Tomography (PET)
Single photon emission computed tomography (SPECT)
Positron emission tomography with computed tomography (PET/CT)
Single photon emission tomography with computed tomography (SPECT/CT)
, 29. Within OPCS-4.7 what rules must be applied when coding multiple birth deliveries
within the same episode of care? [6 Marks] - ANSWER-A code from categories R17-R25
must be assigned in a primary procedural position
Code R24.9 All normal delivery must only be assigned for a normal delivery i.e. when no
other code in categories R17-R25 describing the delivery applies
Each different type of delivery must be recorded with the most serious being sequenced
first
Where all methods of delivery are the same only one code is required
30. When should septic shock be coded? [1 Mark] - ANSWER-Whenever it is documented in
the medical record by the responsible consultant.
31. Describe the two instances when it is permissible to assign a code from category F10
Mental and behavioural disorders due to use of alcohol, for a patient described as a heavy
drinker. [2 Marks] - ANSWER-The patient has been advised by the responsible
consultant to stop drinking because it will have an adverse effect on their medical
condition AND The responsible consultant states that the patient is dependent upon
alcohol.
32. What are the three dimensions of coding accuracy? [3 Marks] - ANSWER-Individual
codes
Totality of codes
Sequencing of codes
33. When according to DCS.IX.7: Chronic ischemic heart disease (I25) should the ICD-10
code for an old myocardial infarction (I25.2) be assigned? [3 Marks] - ANSWER-Code
I25.2 Old myocardial infarction is used to classify an old MI, a previous MI, a past MI,
and a personal history of myocardial infarction and must be used when the patient is not
being treated for the previous myocardial infarction and either:
The old myocardial infarction occurred more than four weeks (28 days) ago or
The length of time since the patient had the MI has not been stated and the responsible
consultant uses terms such as 'previous', 'old', 'past MI'
34. How should non-accidental injuries (NAI), clearly confirmed by the responsible
consultant, be coded and sequenced? Actual codes are not required. [4 Marks] -
ANSWER-T74.- Maltreatment syndrome
Code for the nature of injury caused
Y07.- Other Maltreatment (indicating who caused the injury)
In the above sequence
35. What is the definition of a co-morbidity? [3 Marks] - ANSWER-Any condition which co-
exists in conjunction with another disease that is currently being treated at the time of
admission or develops subsequently and that affects the management of the patient's
current consultant episode.
334 Questions with Answers Graded A+
1. In terms of movement what type of synovial joint is the sternoclavicular joint? [1 Mark] -
ANSWER-Gliding Joint
2. The spleen is part of which body system? [1 Mark] - ANSWER-The lymphatic system
3. What are the two upper chambers of the heart called? [1 Mark] - ANSWER-The left and
right atrium (or the left and right atria, or the left and right auricles)
4. How many layers of tissue make up the pericardium? [1 Mark] - ANSWER-Two
5. Name the circular muscle that controls the opening of the anus? [1 Mark] - ANSWER-
The anal sphincter
6. What is an ovum? [1 Mark] - ANSWER-An egg cell
7. Which component of a medical term follows the root word? [1 Mark] - ANSWER-Suffix
8. How much is being indicated by the use of the prefix 'hemi-' ? [1 Mark] - ANSWER-Half
9. Give terms that indicate the front and back view of the body or an organ. [2 Marks] -
ANSWER-Anterior (front)
Posterior (back)
10. Name the two types of bone found in the femur. [2 Marks] - ANSWER-Cancellous bone
Compact bone
11. How many root words are there in the medical term 'gastroenteritis'? State what they are
and to what they pertain. [3 Marks] - ANSWER-Two:
Gastr - Stomach
Enter - Intestines
12. What is the correct medical term relating to the side view of the body? [1 Mark] -
ANSWER-Lateral
13. What is the meaning of the suffix '-rhaphy'? [1 Mark] - ANSWER-Suture
14. What is the root word in the medical term 'blepharitis' and to what does it refer? [2
Marks] - ANSWER-Blephar - relates to the eyelid
15. Identify the three root terms in this group. Circle your answers. [3 Marks]
, pre
nephr
my
osis
pexy
cephal
dys
plasia
semi - ANSWER-nephr
my
cephal
16. Differentiate between the body position terms 'medial' and 'median'. [2 Marks] -
ANSWER-Median is the (imaginary) midline (middle line) passing through the body
from between the eyes to between the feet.
Medial means pertaining to (near) the median line (central line)
If a condition is documented as 'probable', 'presumed' or 'treat as', how should this be
coded?
17. [1 Mark] - ANSWER-The condition should be coded as a firm diagnosis
18. Name the two cross references which appear in the ICD-10 4th Edition Alphabetical
Index. [2 Marks] - ANSWER-See
19. What does the abbreviation HFQ used in the Alphabetical Index and Tabular List of the
OPCS-4.7 classification signify about the procedural statement given by the consultant?
[2 Marks] - ANSWER-Signifies that a statement may be further qualified/described in a
number of ways, which will not affect the code assignment, i.e. it makes no difference
how much more specific the clinician is in their statement, there is only one code option
for that intervention in OPCS4
20. State the three areas in OPCS-4.7 Tabular List, Volume 1 where the use of .8 and .9 is not
permitted. [3 Marks] - ANSWER-Extended categories
High Cost Drugs categories
Category Y97 or Radiology with contrast
21. When a patient is diagnosed with primary malignant neoplasm of the colon and the
breast, yet the responsible consultant is unable to verify which of the malignancies
predominate, what should be coded and how would it be sequenced? Actual codes are not
required. [2 Marks] - ANSWER-Independent Primary code
Primary neoplasm site codes
or
Malignant neoplasm of independent (primary) multiple sites or C97.X
Malignant neoplasm of colon or C18.9
Malignant neoplasm of breast or C50.9
or
, Malignant neoplasm of independent (primary) multiple sites or C97.X
Malignant neoplasm of breast or C50.9
Malignant neoplasm of colon or C18.9
22. Describe the code(s) required when a patient receives rehabilitation assessment and
rehabilitation delivery within the same admission and explain the use. [2 Marks] -
ANSWER-Only one code is required, with that code being from rehabilitation delivery
U50-U54, as it is assumed the assessment would have been carried out before the
rehabilitation commenced
23. In the ICD-10 Tabular List (Volume III) what does the use of the word "with" indicate in
the code description? [1 Mark] - ANSWER-The term indicates that both elements in the
code description must be present in the diagnostic statement in order to assign the code
24. How must an abandoned or incomplete intervention/procedure be coded? [1 Mark] -
ANSWER-Abandoned, failed or incomplete procedures or incomplete
procedure/intervention must be coded to the stage reached at the time of abandonment.
25. What is the full definition of the primary diagnosis? [8 Marks] - ANSWER-The first
diagnosis field(s) of the coded clinical record (the primary diagnosis) will contain the
main condition treated or investigated during the relevant episode of healthcare.
Where a definitive diagnosis has not been made by the responsible clinician the main
symptom, abnormal finding, or problem should be recorded in the first diagnosis field of
the coded clinical record.
26. Name five different types of resource uses that might be employed during radiological
examinations that are identified within the OPCS-4.7 code range Y97 Radiology with
contrast and Y98 Radiology procedures. [5 Marks] - ANSWER-Number of body areas
scanned/examined
Pre and post contrast
Post contrast
Duration of procedure
Extensive repositioning
Mobile Procedures
Intra-operative procedures
27. How do synonyms, alternative words, or explanatory phrases appear in the ICD-10
Tabular List, Volume 1? [1 Mark] - ANSWER-They appear in Square Brackets or [ ]
28. Give two examples of nuclear medicine imaging procedures that must always be coded
when documented by the responsible consultant. [2 Marks] - ANSWER-Positron
Emission Tomography (PET)
Single photon emission computed tomography (SPECT)
Positron emission tomography with computed tomography (PET/CT)
Single photon emission tomography with computed tomography (SPECT/CT)
, 29. Within OPCS-4.7 what rules must be applied when coding multiple birth deliveries
within the same episode of care? [6 Marks] - ANSWER-A code from categories R17-R25
must be assigned in a primary procedural position
Code R24.9 All normal delivery must only be assigned for a normal delivery i.e. when no
other code in categories R17-R25 describing the delivery applies
Each different type of delivery must be recorded with the most serious being sequenced
first
Where all methods of delivery are the same only one code is required
30. When should septic shock be coded? [1 Mark] - ANSWER-Whenever it is documented in
the medical record by the responsible consultant.
31. Describe the two instances when it is permissible to assign a code from category F10
Mental and behavioural disorders due to use of alcohol, for a patient described as a heavy
drinker. [2 Marks] - ANSWER-The patient has been advised by the responsible
consultant to stop drinking because it will have an adverse effect on their medical
condition AND The responsible consultant states that the patient is dependent upon
alcohol.
32. What are the three dimensions of coding accuracy? [3 Marks] - ANSWER-Individual
codes
Totality of codes
Sequencing of codes
33. When according to DCS.IX.7: Chronic ischemic heart disease (I25) should the ICD-10
code for an old myocardial infarction (I25.2) be assigned? [3 Marks] - ANSWER-Code
I25.2 Old myocardial infarction is used to classify an old MI, a previous MI, a past MI,
and a personal history of myocardial infarction and must be used when the patient is not
being treated for the previous myocardial infarction and either:
The old myocardial infarction occurred more than four weeks (28 days) ago or
The length of time since the patient had the MI has not been stated and the responsible
consultant uses terms such as 'previous', 'old', 'past MI'
34. How should non-accidental injuries (NAI), clearly confirmed by the responsible
consultant, be coded and sequenced? Actual codes are not required. [4 Marks] -
ANSWER-T74.- Maltreatment syndrome
Code for the nature of injury caused
Y07.- Other Maltreatment (indicating who caused the injury)
In the above sequence
35. What is the definition of a co-morbidity? [3 Marks] - ANSWER-Any condition which co-
exists in conjunction with another disease that is currently being treated at the time of
admission or develops subsequently and that affects the management of the patient's
current consultant episode.
