WGU D118 ADULT PRIMARY CARE OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT
Comprehensive Resource To Help You Ace 2026-2027
Includes Frequently Tested Questions With ELABORATED
100% Correct COMPLETE SOLUTIONS
Guaranteed Pass First Attempt!!
Current Update!!
1. An 18-year-old patient is being evaluated by an advanced practice
registered nurse (APRN) because of a severe sore throat, difficulty
swallowing, and a fever of 102°F (38.9°C). Upon visual inspection of the
throat, purulent drainage is noted behind the right tonsil. A diagnosis of
peritonsillar abscess is suspected.
Which referral should the APRN make?
To an emergency department
2. A patient is speaking to an advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) about
recent weight loss and abdominal discomfort. The patient is healthy but
concerned about developing colorectal cancer.
Which test would be appropriate to address this concern?
DNA stool sample test
3. A 28-year-old male is being seen in the primary care office for his annual
wellness exam. During the assessment, the patient notes that he has a
girlfriend and is sexually active. He states that he is concerned about
sexually transmitted illnesses and asks the advanced practice registered
nurse (APRN) if he should get the human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccination.
How should the APRN respond?
,"The vaccination is recommended for males up to age 21."
4. A 45-year-old patient comes to the clinic complaining of generalized
malaise, fever, productive cough, and intermittent chest pain with
respiration that began two days before. The symptoms have increased in
severity and have not improved with the use of over-the-counter (OTC) pain
and cold medication. There is no history of current or past smoking, and the
patient is not on any routine medications.
Assessment data reveals a temperature of 102°F (38.9°C); pulse of 86 beats
per minute; and respirations of 24 breaths per minute. Decreased breath
sounds with wheezing noted bilaterally with dullness to lung percussion are
present. The advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) suspects bacterial
community-acquired pneumonia.
Which chest X-ray finding supports the APRN's suspicions?
Frank consolidation and pleural effusion
5. Which situation would require an immediate referral to the ED?
A. Patient develops a high fever after receiving a vaccination
B. Patient experiences angioedema after taking lisinopril
C. The patient becomes nauseated and dizzy after getting their blood drawn
D. All of the above - ANSWER B. Patient experiences angioedema after taking
lisinopril
6. What is the appropriate dose of aqueous epinephrine for the treatment of
anaphylaxis?
A. 0.1-0.10 mcg IM
B. 0.2-0.5 mg IM
,C. 0.1-0.3 mg IM
D. A standard dose of 2 mg IM - ANSWER B. Aqueous epinephrine: 1:1000
dilution (1 mg/mL), 0.2 to 0.5 mg intramuscularly in the anterolateral aspect of
the mid-thigh as the preferred site. Repeat every 5 to 15 minutes as needed to a
maximum dose of 1 mg
7. Which inflammatory mediator is responsible for bronchoconstriction,
coronary vasoconstriction, and peripheral vasodilation?
A. Basophils
B. Platelet activating factor
C. Prostaglandins
D. Heparin - ANSWER C. In anaphylaxis, the release of prostaglandins results in
bronchoconstriction, coronary vasoconstriction, and peripheral vasodilation.
8. Uniphasic and biphasic anaphylactic reactions can take how long to
manifest?
A. Immediately after exposure to the allergen
B. 24 hours after exposure
C. 48-72 hours after exposure
D. Anywhere from minutes to up to 10 to 12 hours after exposure - ANSWER
D. Anaphylactic reactions differ in how long they take to manifest. Uniphasic and
biphasic reactions can occur anywhere from minutes to up to 10 to 12 hours after
exposure.
9. What is the hallmark exam finding for myxedema coma?
, A. Pretibial edema
B. Babinski sign
C. Pedal edema
D. Bradycardia - ANSWER A. Immediate physician consultation is indicated for
patients with pretibial edema, the hallmark exam finding for myxedema coma.
10. Which finding is characteristic of a heat stroke?
A. Core body temperature rises above 104°F
B. Core body temperature rises above 106°F
C. Core body temperature raises above 102° F
D. Core body temperature rises above 110°F - ANSWER A. Heat stroke is
considered a medical emergency in which core body temperature rises above
104°F.
11.Which situation would not require an emergency department referral for
syncope?
A. Patient has syncope after exercising
B. Patient has syncope after getting their blood drawn
C. Patient has a history of TIAs
D. Patient has new onset seizures - ANSWER B. Patient has syncope after
getting their blood drawn. Emergency department referral or physician
consultation is indicated for syncope in a patient with a family history of sudden
death or for syncope associated with exercise, chest pain, congestive heart failure,
palpitations, acute hemorrhage, trauma, transient ischemic attacks, seizures, or
abnormal electrocardiogram (ECG) recording or chest X-ray study.1 Patients with
syncope and a medical history of anatomic heart disease or previous surgical
Comprehensive Resource To Help You Ace 2026-2027
Includes Frequently Tested Questions With ELABORATED
100% Correct COMPLETE SOLUTIONS
Guaranteed Pass First Attempt!!
Current Update!!
1. An 18-year-old patient is being evaluated by an advanced practice
registered nurse (APRN) because of a severe sore throat, difficulty
swallowing, and a fever of 102°F (38.9°C). Upon visual inspection of the
throat, purulent drainage is noted behind the right tonsil. A diagnosis of
peritonsillar abscess is suspected.
Which referral should the APRN make?
To an emergency department
2. A patient is speaking to an advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) about
recent weight loss and abdominal discomfort. The patient is healthy but
concerned about developing colorectal cancer.
Which test would be appropriate to address this concern?
DNA stool sample test
3. A 28-year-old male is being seen in the primary care office for his annual
wellness exam. During the assessment, the patient notes that he has a
girlfriend and is sexually active. He states that he is concerned about
sexually transmitted illnesses and asks the advanced practice registered
nurse (APRN) if he should get the human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccination.
How should the APRN respond?
,"The vaccination is recommended for males up to age 21."
4. A 45-year-old patient comes to the clinic complaining of generalized
malaise, fever, productive cough, and intermittent chest pain with
respiration that began two days before. The symptoms have increased in
severity and have not improved with the use of over-the-counter (OTC) pain
and cold medication. There is no history of current or past smoking, and the
patient is not on any routine medications.
Assessment data reveals a temperature of 102°F (38.9°C); pulse of 86 beats
per minute; and respirations of 24 breaths per minute. Decreased breath
sounds with wheezing noted bilaterally with dullness to lung percussion are
present. The advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) suspects bacterial
community-acquired pneumonia.
Which chest X-ray finding supports the APRN's suspicions?
Frank consolidation and pleural effusion
5. Which situation would require an immediate referral to the ED?
A. Patient develops a high fever after receiving a vaccination
B. Patient experiences angioedema after taking lisinopril
C. The patient becomes nauseated and dizzy after getting their blood drawn
D. All of the above - ANSWER B. Patient experiences angioedema after taking
lisinopril
6. What is the appropriate dose of aqueous epinephrine for the treatment of
anaphylaxis?
A. 0.1-0.10 mcg IM
B. 0.2-0.5 mg IM
,C. 0.1-0.3 mg IM
D. A standard dose of 2 mg IM - ANSWER B. Aqueous epinephrine: 1:1000
dilution (1 mg/mL), 0.2 to 0.5 mg intramuscularly in the anterolateral aspect of
the mid-thigh as the preferred site. Repeat every 5 to 15 minutes as needed to a
maximum dose of 1 mg
7. Which inflammatory mediator is responsible for bronchoconstriction,
coronary vasoconstriction, and peripheral vasodilation?
A. Basophils
B. Platelet activating factor
C. Prostaglandins
D. Heparin - ANSWER C. In anaphylaxis, the release of prostaglandins results in
bronchoconstriction, coronary vasoconstriction, and peripheral vasodilation.
8. Uniphasic and biphasic anaphylactic reactions can take how long to
manifest?
A. Immediately after exposure to the allergen
B. 24 hours after exposure
C. 48-72 hours after exposure
D. Anywhere from minutes to up to 10 to 12 hours after exposure - ANSWER
D. Anaphylactic reactions differ in how long they take to manifest. Uniphasic and
biphasic reactions can occur anywhere from minutes to up to 10 to 12 hours after
exposure.
9. What is the hallmark exam finding for myxedema coma?
, A. Pretibial edema
B. Babinski sign
C. Pedal edema
D. Bradycardia - ANSWER A. Immediate physician consultation is indicated for
patients with pretibial edema, the hallmark exam finding for myxedema coma.
10. Which finding is characteristic of a heat stroke?
A. Core body temperature rises above 104°F
B. Core body temperature rises above 106°F
C. Core body temperature raises above 102° F
D. Core body temperature rises above 110°F - ANSWER A. Heat stroke is
considered a medical emergency in which core body temperature rises above
104°F.
11.Which situation would not require an emergency department referral for
syncope?
A. Patient has syncope after exercising
B. Patient has syncope after getting their blood drawn
C. Patient has a history of TIAs
D. Patient has new onset seizures - ANSWER B. Patient has syncope after
getting their blood drawn. Emergency department referral or physician
consultation is indicated for syncope in a patient with a family history of sudden
death or for syncope associated with exercise, chest pain, congestive heart failure,
palpitations, acute hemorrhage, trauma, transient ischemic attacks, seizures, or
abnormal electrocardiogram (ECG) recording or chest X-ray study.1 Patients with
syncope and a medical history of anatomic heart disease or previous surgical
