Pathophysiology Actual Week 1-4 Midterm Exam Complete 1-
100 Exam Questions Proctored Via Examplify Chamberlain
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, 1. A 68-year-old male with a long history of smoking presents with a cough and is diagnosed with
squamous cell carcinoma of the lung. Biopsy reveals cells with significant pleomorphism,
hyperchromatic nuclei, and loss of normal tissue architecture. The oncologist explains that the tumor
is poorly differentiated. At the cellular level, this dedifferentiation is MOST directly associated with:
A. Reactivation of telomerase leading to cellular immortality.
B. Dysregulation of cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs) causing uncontrolled proliferation.
C. Epigenetic silencing of tumor suppressor genes like p53.
D. Alterations in the expression of transcription factors that maintain cell lineage and differentiation.
*Rationale: While all options are hallmarks of cancer, the question specifically targets the loss of
differentiation (anaplasia). This is driven by changes in master transcription factors and differentiation-
pathway genes (e.g., Sox2, ASCL1 in lung cancer), not just proliferation or immortality. p53 loss
contributes to genetic instability but is not the direct driver of morphological dedifferentiation.*
Rotation of Concept: "A pathologist notes that a tumor biopsy shows cells forming glandular structures
similar to the original tissue. This feature is described as:" (Answer: Differentiation. The opposite clinical
presentation tests the same core concept.)
2. A patient with sickle cell disease (HbSS) presents in a vaso-occlusive crisis. The molecular
pathophysiology of this painful event is initiated by:
A. Autoantibody-mediated agglutination of red blood cells.
B. Point mutation causing valine to replace glutamic acid, leading to hemoglobin polymerization under
low oxygen tension.
C. A defect in spectrin, causing membrane fragility and hemolysis.
D. Deficiency of glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase, causing oxidative damage.
Rationale: This tests precise molecular knowledge. The single nucleotide substitution (GAG to GTG) leads
to hydrophobic valine replacing hydrophilic glutamic acid in the beta-globin chain. Deoxygenated HbS
polymerizes, distorting the RBC into a sickle shape, causing vaso-occlusion and pain.
3. A 35-year-old female with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is found to have a positive Direct
Coombs' test and anemia. Her anemia is most likely classified as:
A. Microcytic, hypochromic anemia due to iron deficiency.
B. Normocytic, normochromic anemia of chronic disease.
C. Macrocytic anemia due to vitamin B12 deficiency.
D. Extravascular hemolytic anemia due to warm autoimmune antibodies.
Rationale: SLE is a classic cause of autoimmune hemolytic anemia (AIHA). The Direct Coombs' test
detects IgG antibodies and/or complement on the RBC surface. These antibody-coated RBCs are targeted
for destruction by macrophages in the spleen (extravascular hemolysis), leading to anemia, often with
spherocytes on smear.
Section 2: Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Pathology