ATI Pathophysiology Questions and Answers with Explanations 100% Correct Graded A

1. The percentage of the FVC expired in one second is - FEV1/FVC ratio 2. The aging process causes what normal physiological changes in the heart - The heart valve thickens and becomes rigid, secondary to fibrosis and sclerosis 3. A 55 yo Caucasian male follows up after referral to cardiologist. He thinks his med is causing a cough and sometimes he has difficulty breathing. Which med was most likely prescribed? - Lisinopril 4. MJ presents with h/o structural damage with current s/s of HF. Treatment will be based on his stage of HF which is - Stage C 5. 65 yo Caucasian presents with mitral valve stenosis, physical exam is unremarkable. you know her stage of HF is - Stage B 6. The best way to diagnose structural heart disease/dysfunction noninvasively is - Echocardiogram 7. Chronic pain can have major impact on patients ability to function and have profound impact on overall QOL. Ongoing pain may be linked to - Depression, sleep disturbance, decreased socialization 8. The Beers criteria are appropriate for use in evaluating use of certain meds in patients - 65 y/o 9. All of the following statements are true about lab values in older adults except - Abnormal findings are often due to physiological aging 10. According to the 2017 ACC HTN guidelines, the recommended BP goal for a 65y/o African American woman with a h/o HTN and DM and no h/o CKD is - 140/80 11. THe pathophysiology of HF is due to - Inadequate cardiac output to meet the metabolic and O2 demands of the body 12. The volume of air a patient to exhale for total duration of the test during maximal effort is - FVC 13. According it the 2017 ACC HTN guidelines, normal BP is - 120/80 14. Functional abilities are best assessed by - Observed assessment of function ATI Pathophysiology Questions and Answers with Explanations 100% Correct Graded A 15. LB is a 77 yo with chronic poorly controlled HTN. You know that goals include prevention of target organ damage. During your eval you will assess for evidence of - Left ventricular hypertrophy 16. Aortic regurgitation requires medical treatment for early signs of HF with - ACEi 17. The volume of air in the lungs at max inflation is - TLC (total lung capacity) 18. Preferred amount of exercise for older adults is - 30min/day of aerobic exercise 5 days a week 19. You know the following statements regarding th pain of acute coronary syndrome are true except - Present atypically more often in men than women 20. Elderly patient presents with new onset of feeling heart race, fatigue. EKG reveals Afib with rate 100. Patient also has a new tremor in both hands. Which of the following would you suspect - Hyperthyroidism 21. Which patient is more likely to have osteoporosis - 80 y/o. Underweight male who smokes and has been on steroids for psoriasis 22. Post menopausal woman with osteoporosis is taking bisphosphonate daily po. What action info statement would indicate she understood your instructions regarding this med? - Take med with full glass of water when up in the AM 30 min before other food and meds 23. 60 y/o obese male has T2DM and lipid panel of TC= 250 HDL=32, LDL=165. You teach him about his modifiable cardiac risk factors which include - DM, obesity, hyperlipidemia 24. OA of cervical and lumbar spine causes pain related to all of the following except - Crystal deposition 25. In differentiating OA from chronic gout, pseudo gout, or septic arthritis, the most valuable diagnostic study would be - Synovial fluid analysis 26. Patients with OA of the hip and knee often have a distinguishable gait described as - Antalgic 27. Which of the following best describes pain associated with OA - Begins upon arising and after prolonged weight bearing and or use of the joint 28. Joint effusions typically occurs later in the course of OA, especially in the - Knee 29. You ordered CBC for your patient you suspect has polymyalgia rheumatica. Which 2 clinical findings are common in patients with PMR - Normochromic, normocytic anemia and thrombocytosis 30. You suspect your patient has PMR and now are concerned that they may have Giant Cell Arteritis too. Which of the following 2 symptoms are most indicative of GCA and PMR - Scalp tenderness and aching in shoulder and pelvic girdle 31. 63 yo Caucasian patient with PMR will begin tx corticosteroids until the condition has resolved. You look over her records and it has been 2 years since her last physical exam and any labs or diagnostic tests as she relocated and had not yet ID'd a provider. In prioritizing your management plan your first orders should include - Duel energy X-ray scan and updating immunizations 32. Which of the following DD for patients presenting with PMR can be ruled out with a muscle biopsy - Polymyositis 33. In reviewing lab results for patients with suspected PMR, you realize there is no definitive test to diagnose PMR, rather clinical response to treatment. Results you would expect to see include: - ESR 50 34. Which of the following is the most appropriate lab test for monitoring gout therapy over the long-term - Serum urate level 35. In providing health teaching related to dietary restrictions, you should advise a patient with gout to avoid which of the following dietary items - Beer, sausage, fried seafood 36. The best method of verifying gout diagnosis in a joint is which of the following - Joint aspiration and polarized light microscopy 37. The most appropriate first line treatment for acute gout flare, assuming no kidney disease or elevated bleeding risk - Indomethacin 50mg TID x2 days, then 25mg TID x3 days 38. You order bilateral wrist XR on 69 yo man with c/o both wrists x6 weeks, not related to any known trauma. You suspect early RA. The initial XR finding in apatien with elderly onset RA would be - Soft tissue swelling 39. A 72 female has been diagnosed with gout. She also has chronic HF. The most likely contributing factor to development of gout in this older female is - Thiazide diuretics 40. Which of the following statements about OA is true - It affects primarily weight bearing joints 41. In considering the specificity of lab data, the most reliable diagnostic test listed below would be - Synovial fluid analysis to differentiate between infectious versus inflammatory infusion 42. When examining the spine of an older adult you notice a curvature with a sharp angle. This is referred to as - Gibbus 43. The prevalence of depression in nursing home residents is greater than adults living in the community - 3-4 times 44. The majority of depressed older adults remain untreated because of - Misdiagnosis, social stigma, environmental barriers 45. Symptoms of depression distinct to the elderly include - Lack of emotions 46. The justification for ordering CBC, TSH, serum B12 for a patient you may suspect have clinical depression is - Because of overlapping symptoms with anemia, thyroid dysfunction, and nutritional deficiencies 47. One major difference that us useful in the DD of dementia versus delirium is that - Dementia develops slowly and delirium develops quickly 48. Which of the following is the most appropriate screening tool for delirium - Confusion Assessment Method 49. The proposed mechanism by which diphenhydramine causes delirium is - Anticholinergic effects 50. The elderly are at risk for delirium because of - Multisensory declines, polypharmacy, multiple medical problems 51. A consistent finding in delirium regardless of cause i - Reduction in regional cerebral perfusion 52. Older adults with Dementia sometimes suffer from agnosia, which is defined as the inability to - Recognize objects 53. In late stages of dementia, a phenomenon called sun downing, in which cognitive disturbances tend to - Become worse in the evening 54. Of the following, which one is the most useful clinical eval tool to assist in the diagnosis of dementia - St. Louis Mental Status Exam SLUMS 55. The cornerstone of pharmacotherapy in treating Alzheimer's is - Cholinesterase inhibitors