ATLS 10TH EDITION – POST TEST
EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES
GRADED A+ LATEST
1. Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of the ATLS
primary survey?
A. To identify all injuries before any treatment
B. To rapidly identify and treat life-threatening conditions
C. To obtain a complete history and physical exam
D. To prepare the patient for discharge
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The primary survey is designed to rapidly identify and treat life-
threatening conditions in the order of Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability,
and Exposure (ABCDE).
,2. A 35-year-old patient arrives after a motor vehicle collision. He is conscious
but has severe facial trauma and is snoring. The most appropriate next step
is:
A. Observe closely and repeat exam in 5 minutes
B. Place a nasopharyngeal airway
C. Perform rapid sequence intubation
D. Give oxygen via non-rebreather mask
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Snoring indicates partial airway obstruction. Severe facial trauma
increases the risk of airway loss, so definitive airway management with RSI is
indicated.
3. Which of the following is the best initial intervention for a tension
pneumothorax?
A. Needle decompression in the 5th intercostal space
B. Needle decompression in the 2nd intercostal space midclavicular line
C. Chest tube insertion in the 4th intercostal space
D. Immediate intubation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Needle decompression at the 2nd intercostal space midclavicular line is
the fastest initial treatment; chest tube placement follows.
4. In ATLS, which finding best indicates a massive hemothorax?
A. Hyperresonant percussion
B. Absent breath sounds and dullness to percussion
C. Subcutaneous emphysema
D. Jugular venous distension
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Massive hemothorax presents with absent breath sounds and dullness
to percussion due to blood accumulation.
,5. Which of the following best describes the management of a patient with
suspected cervical spine injury during airway management?
A. Flex the neck to improve visualization
B. Perform blind nasotracheal intubation
C. Use manual in-line stabilization
D. Avoid airway control until CT is completed
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Manual in-line stabilization protects the cervical spine while allowing
airway control.
6. A patient with hypotension and tachycardia after trauma has a weak
peripheral pulse and cool extremities. The most likely cause is:
A. Neurogenic shock
B. Hypovolemic shock
C. Obstructive shock
D. Cardiogenic shock
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hypovolemic shock presents with tachycardia, hypotension, weak
pulses, and cool extremities due to decreased circulating volume.
7. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial fluid for resuscitation
in hemorrhagic shock?
A. Dextrose 5%
B. Normal saline
C. Whole blood or balanced blood products
D. Lactated Ringer’s only
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In hemorrhagic shock, early balanced blood product resuscitation
improves outcomes compared to crystalloid alone.
, 8. Which is the most accurate statement regarding pelvic fractures in trauma?
A. Pelvic fractures rarely cause significant hemorrhage
B. Pelvic binding should be applied only after CT confirmation
C. Pelvic fractures can cause life-threatening hemorrhage and require early
stabilization
D. Pelvic fractures should always be managed operatively
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Pelvic fractures can cause major hemorrhage; early stabilization (pelvic
binder) is essential.
9. In the ATLS secondary survey, what is the primary purpose?
A. To re-evaluate ABCs
B. To obtain a detailed head-to-toe examination and history
C. To decide whether to discharge the patient
D. To perform surgery
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The secondary survey is a thorough head-to-toe evaluation and history
(AMPLE) after life-threatening injuries have been addressed.
10. The “C” in the AMPLE history stands for:
A. Cardiovascular history
B. Current medications
C. Chief complaint
D. Comorbid conditions
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: AMPLE stands for Allergies, Medications, Past medical history, Last
meal, Events leading to injury.
EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES
GRADED A+ LATEST
1. Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of the ATLS
primary survey?
A. To identify all injuries before any treatment
B. To rapidly identify and treat life-threatening conditions
C. To obtain a complete history and physical exam
D. To prepare the patient for discharge
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The primary survey is designed to rapidly identify and treat life-
threatening conditions in the order of Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability,
and Exposure (ABCDE).
,2. A 35-year-old patient arrives after a motor vehicle collision. He is conscious
but has severe facial trauma and is snoring. The most appropriate next step
is:
A. Observe closely and repeat exam in 5 minutes
B. Place a nasopharyngeal airway
C. Perform rapid sequence intubation
D. Give oxygen via non-rebreather mask
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Snoring indicates partial airway obstruction. Severe facial trauma
increases the risk of airway loss, so definitive airway management with RSI is
indicated.
3. Which of the following is the best initial intervention for a tension
pneumothorax?
A. Needle decompression in the 5th intercostal space
B. Needle decompression in the 2nd intercostal space midclavicular line
C. Chest tube insertion in the 4th intercostal space
D. Immediate intubation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Needle decompression at the 2nd intercostal space midclavicular line is
the fastest initial treatment; chest tube placement follows.
4. In ATLS, which finding best indicates a massive hemothorax?
A. Hyperresonant percussion
B. Absent breath sounds and dullness to percussion
C. Subcutaneous emphysema
D. Jugular venous distension
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Massive hemothorax presents with absent breath sounds and dullness
to percussion due to blood accumulation.
,5. Which of the following best describes the management of a patient with
suspected cervical spine injury during airway management?
A. Flex the neck to improve visualization
B. Perform blind nasotracheal intubation
C. Use manual in-line stabilization
D. Avoid airway control until CT is completed
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Manual in-line stabilization protects the cervical spine while allowing
airway control.
6. A patient with hypotension and tachycardia after trauma has a weak
peripheral pulse and cool extremities. The most likely cause is:
A. Neurogenic shock
B. Hypovolemic shock
C. Obstructive shock
D. Cardiogenic shock
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hypovolemic shock presents with tachycardia, hypotension, weak
pulses, and cool extremities due to decreased circulating volume.
7. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial fluid for resuscitation
in hemorrhagic shock?
A. Dextrose 5%
B. Normal saline
C. Whole blood or balanced blood products
D. Lactated Ringer’s only
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In hemorrhagic shock, early balanced blood product resuscitation
improves outcomes compared to crystalloid alone.
, 8. Which is the most accurate statement regarding pelvic fractures in trauma?
A. Pelvic fractures rarely cause significant hemorrhage
B. Pelvic binding should be applied only after CT confirmation
C. Pelvic fractures can cause life-threatening hemorrhage and require early
stabilization
D. Pelvic fractures should always be managed operatively
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Pelvic fractures can cause major hemorrhage; early stabilization (pelvic
binder) is essential.
9. In the ATLS secondary survey, what is the primary purpose?
A. To re-evaluate ABCs
B. To obtain a detailed head-to-toe examination and history
C. To decide whether to discharge the patient
D. To perform surgery
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The secondary survey is a thorough head-to-toe evaluation and history
(AMPLE) after life-threatening injuries have been addressed.
10. The “C” in the AMPLE history stands for:
A. Cardiovascular history
B. Current medications
C. Chief complaint
D. Comorbid conditions
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: AMPLE stands for Allergies, Medications, Past medical history, Last
meal, Events leading to injury.
