Texas Paramedic Licensing Exam With
Actual Questions & Verified Answers, Plus
Explained Rationales/Expert Verified For
Guaranteed 100% Pass 2026/Latest
Update/Instant Download Pdf
1. Which of the following is the primary purpose of the airway
adjunct in a patient who is unconscious but has a gag reflex?
A) Provide oxygenation
B) Prevent aspiration
C) Facilitate suctioning
D) Measure tidal volume
B) Prevent aspiration
Rationale: Airway adjuncts such as an oropharyngeal or
nasopharyngeal airway help prevent the tongue from obstructing the
airway and reduce the risk of aspiration in an unconscious patient.
2. A 55-year-old male with chest pain is given aspirin in the field.
What is the main mechanism by which aspirin helps in this
scenario?
A) Vasodilation
B) Platelet inhibition
C) Bronchodilation
D) Anticoagulation
,B) Platelet inhibition
Rationale: Aspirin inhibits platelet aggregation, which helps prevent
further clot formation during myocardial infarction.
3. During CPR, how often should rescue breaths be given to an adult
patient with an advanced airway in place?
A) Every 5 seconds
B) Every 6–8 seconds
C) Every 10 seconds
D) Every 15 seconds
B) Every 6–8 seconds
Rationale: For adults with an advanced airway during CPR,
ventilations are delivered once every 6–8 seconds while continuous
compressions are maintained.
4. Which of the following medications is indicated for anaphylactic
shock?
A) Epinephrine
B) Nitroglycerin
C) Albuterol
D) Furosemide
A) Epinephrine
Rationale: Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis
because it reverses airway swelling, vasodilation, and hypotension.
5. What is the most appropriate method to assess for adequate
perfusion in a hypotensive adult?
A) Pulse oximetry
B) Capillary refill and mental status
C) Blood pressure alone
D) Skin temperature
,B) Capillary refill and mental status
Rationale: Mental status and capillary refill are key indicators of
perfusion, especially when blood pressure may be misleading in early
shock.
6. Which rhythm is characterized by chaotic electrical activity with
no identifiable QRS complexes on ECG?
A) Ventricular tachycardia
B) Ventricular fibrillation
C) Asystole
D) Atrial fibrillation
B) Ventricular fibrillation
Rationale: Ventricular fibrillation shows disorganized electrical
activity and requires immediate defibrillation.
7. Which of the following is the most important intervention for a
patient with a suspected spinal injury at the scene?
A) Oxygen therapy
B) Cervical spine immobilization
C) IV fluid bolus
D) Rapid transport
B) Cervical spine immobilization
Rationale: Protecting the cervical spine is crucial to prevent further
spinal cord injury during prehospital care.
8. For a patient experiencing hypoglycemia with altered mental
status, which intervention is most appropriate if IV access is not
available?
A) Oral glucose
B) Intramuscular glucagon
, C) IV dextrose
D) Subcutaneous insulin
B) Intramuscular glucagon
Rationale: Glucagon can raise blood glucose when IV access is not
possible, making it suitable for patients with altered consciousness.
9. What is the recommended dose of epinephrine for adult
anaphylaxis administered intramuscularly?
A) 0.1 mg
B) 0.3–0.5 mg
C) 1 mg
D) 2 mg
B) 0.3–0.5 mg
Rationale: The standard adult IM dose of epinephrine for anaphylaxis
is 0.3–0.5 mg, typically in the mid-outer thigh.
10. Which of the following is the most common cause of cardiac
arrest in adults?
A) Trauma
B) Pulmonary embolism
C) Myocardial infarction
D) Drug overdose
C) Myocardial infarction
Rationale: Acute myocardial infarction is the leading cause of adult
cardiac arrest, often presenting with ventricular fibrillation or
pulseless VT.
11. During neonatal resuscitation, if the heart rate is below 60
bpm after 30 seconds of effective ventilation, what is the next
step?
A) Continue ventilation
Actual Questions & Verified Answers, Plus
Explained Rationales/Expert Verified For
Guaranteed 100% Pass 2026/Latest
Update/Instant Download Pdf
1. Which of the following is the primary purpose of the airway
adjunct in a patient who is unconscious but has a gag reflex?
A) Provide oxygenation
B) Prevent aspiration
C) Facilitate suctioning
D) Measure tidal volume
B) Prevent aspiration
Rationale: Airway adjuncts such as an oropharyngeal or
nasopharyngeal airway help prevent the tongue from obstructing the
airway and reduce the risk of aspiration in an unconscious patient.
2. A 55-year-old male with chest pain is given aspirin in the field.
What is the main mechanism by which aspirin helps in this
scenario?
A) Vasodilation
B) Platelet inhibition
C) Bronchodilation
D) Anticoagulation
,B) Platelet inhibition
Rationale: Aspirin inhibits platelet aggregation, which helps prevent
further clot formation during myocardial infarction.
3. During CPR, how often should rescue breaths be given to an adult
patient with an advanced airway in place?
A) Every 5 seconds
B) Every 6–8 seconds
C) Every 10 seconds
D) Every 15 seconds
B) Every 6–8 seconds
Rationale: For adults with an advanced airway during CPR,
ventilations are delivered once every 6–8 seconds while continuous
compressions are maintained.
4. Which of the following medications is indicated for anaphylactic
shock?
A) Epinephrine
B) Nitroglycerin
C) Albuterol
D) Furosemide
A) Epinephrine
Rationale: Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis
because it reverses airway swelling, vasodilation, and hypotension.
5. What is the most appropriate method to assess for adequate
perfusion in a hypotensive adult?
A) Pulse oximetry
B) Capillary refill and mental status
C) Blood pressure alone
D) Skin temperature
,B) Capillary refill and mental status
Rationale: Mental status and capillary refill are key indicators of
perfusion, especially when blood pressure may be misleading in early
shock.
6. Which rhythm is characterized by chaotic electrical activity with
no identifiable QRS complexes on ECG?
A) Ventricular tachycardia
B) Ventricular fibrillation
C) Asystole
D) Atrial fibrillation
B) Ventricular fibrillation
Rationale: Ventricular fibrillation shows disorganized electrical
activity and requires immediate defibrillation.
7. Which of the following is the most important intervention for a
patient with a suspected spinal injury at the scene?
A) Oxygen therapy
B) Cervical spine immobilization
C) IV fluid bolus
D) Rapid transport
B) Cervical spine immobilization
Rationale: Protecting the cervical spine is crucial to prevent further
spinal cord injury during prehospital care.
8. For a patient experiencing hypoglycemia with altered mental
status, which intervention is most appropriate if IV access is not
available?
A) Oral glucose
B) Intramuscular glucagon
, C) IV dextrose
D) Subcutaneous insulin
B) Intramuscular glucagon
Rationale: Glucagon can raise blood glucose when IV access is not
possible, making it suitable for patients with altered consciousness.
9. What is the recommended dose of epinephrine for adult
anaphylaxis administered intramuscularly?
A) 0.1 mg
B) 0.3–0.5 mg
C) 1 mg
D) 2 mg
B) 0.3–0.5 mg
Rationale: The standard adult IM dose of epinephrine for anaphylaxis
is 0.3–0.5 mg, typically in the mid-outer thigh.
10. Which of the following is the most common cause of cardiac
arrest in adults?
A) Trauma
B) Pulmonary embolism
C) Myocardial infarction
D) Drug overdose
C) Myocardial infarction
Rationale: Acute myocardial infarction is the leading cause of adult
cardiac arrest, often presenting with ventricular fibrillation or
pulseless VT.
11. During neonatal resuscitation, if the heart rate is below 60
bpm after 30 seconds of effective ventilation, what is the next
step?
A) Continue ventilation
