NATIONAL DENTAL EXAMINING BOARD OF CANADA
(NDEB) WRITTEN EXAM ACTUAL QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS - LATEST AND COMPLETE UPDATE WITH
VERIFIED SOLUTIONS – ASSURED PASS WITH
INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF.
1. A 45-year-old patient presents with generalized gingival inflammation and
bleeding on probing. Radiographs show mild horizontal bone loss. The
patient has a 20-year history of smoking. What is the most appropriate initial
management?
A. Immediate periodontal surgery
B. Scaling and root planing with smoking cessation counseling
C. Prescription of systemic antibiotics only
D. Extraction of all teeth with mobility
Rationale: Initial management of chronic periodontitis focuses on
nonsurgical therapy and risk factor modification. Surgery is considered only
after initial therapy if disease persists.
2. A patient with poorly controlled type 2 diabetes presents with delayed
wound healing after dental extraction. Which of the following mechanisms
best explains this?
A. Increased osteoblastic activity
B. Impaired neutrophil function and reduced collagen synthesis
C. Overactive clotting cascade
D. Excess salivary antimicrobial proteins
Rationale: Diabetes impairs immune response and collagen formation,
leading to delayed wound healing and increased risk of infection.
3. Which of the following local anesthetics has the longest duration of pulpal
anesthesia for mandibular molars?
, A. Lidocaine 2% with epinephrine
B. Mepivacaine 3% plain
C. Bupivacaine 0.5% with epinephrine
D. Articaine 4% with epinephrine
Rationale: Bupivacaine provides prolonged anesthesia (90–180 minutes)
suitable for lengthy procedures.
4. A patient presents with recurrent aphthous ulcers that heal spontaneously in
10–14 days. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Herpetic gingivostomatitis
B. Oral lichen planus
C. Minor recurrent aphthous stomatitis
D. Pemphigus vulgaris
Rationale: Minor aphthous ulcers are recurrent, round, self-limiting, and
not associated with systemic symptoms.
5. A 7-year-old presents with a fractured maxillary central incisor with pulp
exposure. What is the most appropriate treatment if the tooth is vital and root
formation is incomplete?
A. Extraction
B. Pulpectomy
C. Partial pulpotomy (Cvek procedure)
D. Root canal therapy
Rationale: Partial pulpotomy preserves pulp vitality and allows continued
root development in immature teeth.
6. Which of the following radiographic signs is most characteristic of
periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia?
A. Uniform radiolucency with cortical expansion
B. Radiolucent lesion with periosteal reaction
, C. Mixed radiolucent-radiopaque lesion with well-defined borders in
mandibular anterior teeth
D. Ill-defined radiolucency with root resorption
Rationale: Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia typically presents as a
mixed lesion in middle-aged African American females.
7. Which antibiotic is considered first-line for prophylaxis in a patient with a
history of infective endocarditis undergoing dental extraction?
A. Azithromycin
B. Amoxicillin
C. Clindamycin
D. Ciprofloxacin
Rationale: Amoxicillin is the preferred prophylactic antibiotic for patients at
risk of infective endocarditis unless allergic.
8. A 65-year-old patient presents with xerostomia, difficulty swallowing, and
burning sensation in the mouth. Which systemic condition is most likely
associated with these findings?
A. Hyperthyroidism
B. Sjogren’s syndrome
C. Addison’s disease
D. Cushing’s syndrome
Rationale: Sjogren’s syndrome is an autoimmune disorder affecting salivary
and lacrimal glands, causing dry mouth and keratoconjunctivitis sicca.
9. Which of the following local factors most significantly contributes to early
childhood caries?
A. Low fluoride in water
B. Frequent nocturnal bottle feeding with sugary liquids
C. Genetic enamel hypoplasia
, D. Delayed eruption of primary teeth
Rationale: Prolonged exposure to fermentable carbohydrates, especially at
night, promotes cariogenic bacterial activity.
10.A 28-year-old patient presents with severe, sharp facial pain triggered by
light touch on the right side of the face. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Migraine
B. Temporomandibular disorder
C. Trigeminal neuralgia
D. Cluster headache
Rationale: Trigeminal neuralgia is characterized by sudden, severe,
unilateral facial pain triggered by minimal stimuli.
11.A patient has poor plaque control and moderate chronic periodontitis. Which
of the following systemic conditions can exacerbate periodontal destruction?
A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Hyperthyroidism
C. Epilepsy
D. Osteoarthritis
Rationale: Diabetes increases susceptibility to periodontal disease through
altered immune response and microvascular changes.
12.Which of the following features differentiates a benign from a malignant
oral lesion?
A. Red color
B. Rapid growth with ulceration and induration
C. Presence on the tongue
D. Painful sensation
Rationale: Malignant lesions often demonstrate rapid progression,
ulceration, induration, and fixation to underlying tissue.
(NDEB) WRITTEN EXAM ACTUAL QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS - LATEST AND COMPLETE UPDATE WITH
VERIFIED SOLUTIONS – ASSURED PASS WITH
INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF.
1. A 45-year-old patient presents with generalized gingival inflammation and
bleeding on probing. Radiographs show mild horizontal bone loss. The
patient has a 20-year history of smoking. What is the most appropriate initial
management?
A. Immediate periodontal surgery
B. Scaling and root planing with smoking cessation counseling
C. Prescription of systemic antibiotics only
D. Extraction of all teeth with mobility
Rationale: Initial management of chronic periodontitis focuses on
nonsurgical therapy and risk factor modification. Surgery is considered only
after initial therapy if disease persists.
2. A patient with poorly controlled type 2 diabetes presents with delayed
wound healing after dental extraction. Which of the following mechanisms
best explains this?
A. Increased osteoblastic activity
B. Impaired neutrophil function and reduced collagen synthesis
C. Overactive clotting cascade
D. Excess salivary antimicrobial proteins
Rationale: Diabetes impairs immune response and collagen formation,
leading to delayed wound healing and increased risk of infection.
3. Which of the following local anesthetics has the longest duration of pulpal
anesthesia for mandibular molars?
, A. Lidocaine 2% with epinephrine
B. Mepivacaine 3% plain
C. Bupivacaine 0.5% with epinephrine
D. Articaine 4% with epinephrine
Rationale: Bupivacaine provides prolonged anesthesia (90–180 minutes)
suitable for lengthy procedures.
4. A patient presents with recurrent aphthous ulcers that heal spontaneously in
10–14 days. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Herpetic gingivostomatitis
B. Oral lichen planus
C. Minor recurrent aphthous stomatitis
D. Pemphigus vulgaris
Rationale: Minor aphthous ulcers are recurrent, round, self-limiting, and
not associated with systemic symptoms.
5. A 7-year-old presents with a fractured maxillary central incisor with pulp
exposure. What is the most appropriate treatment if the tooth is vital and root
formation is incomplete?
A. Extraction
B. Pulpectomy
C. Partial pulpotomy (Cvek procedure)
D. Root canal therapy
Rationale: Partial pulpotomy preserves pulp vitality and allows continued
root development in immature teeth.
6. Which of the following radiographic signs is most characteristic of
periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia?
A. Uniform radiolucency with cortical expansion
B. Radiolucent lesion with periosteal reaction
, C. Mixed radiolucent-radiopaque lesion with well-defined borders in
mandibular anterior teeth
D. Ill-defined radiolucency with root resorption
Rationale: Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia typically presents as a
mixed lesion in middle-aged African American females.
7. Which antibiotic is considered first-line for prophylaxis in a patient with a
history of infective endocarditis undergoing dental extraction?
A. Azithromycin
B. Amoxicillin
C. Clindamycin
D. Ciprofloxacin
Rationale: Amoxicillin is the preferred prophylactic antibiotic for patients at
risk of infective endocarditis unless allergic.
8. A 65-year-old patient presents with xerostomia, difficulty swallowing, and
burning sensation in the mouth. Which systemic condition is most likely
associated with these findings?
A. Hyperthyroidism
B. Sjogren’s syndrome
C. Addison’s disease
D. Cushing’s syndrome
Rationale: Sjogren’s syndrome is an autoimmune disorder affecting salivary
and lacrimal glands, causing dry mouth and keratoconjunctivitis sicca.
9. Which of the following local factors most significantly contributes to early
childhood caries?
A. Low fluoride in water
B. Frequent nocturnal bottle feeding with sugary liquids
C. Genetic enamel hypoplasia
, D. Delayed eruption of primary teeth
Rationale: Prolonged exposure to fermentable carbohydrates, especially at
night, promotes cariogenic bacterial activity.
10.A 28-year-old patient presents with severe, sharp facial pain triggered by
light touch on the right side of the face. The most likely diagnosis is:
A. Migraine
B. Temporomandibular disorder
C. Trigeminal neuralgia
D. Cluster headache
Rationale: Trigeminal neuralgia is characterized by sudden, severe,
unilateral facial pain triggered by minimal stimuli.
11.A patient has poor plaque control and moderate chronic periodontitis. Which
of the following systemic conditions can exacerbate periodontal destruction?
A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Hyperthyroidism
C. Epilepsy
D. Osteoarthritis
Rationale: Diabetes increases susceptibility to periodontal disease through
altered immune response and microvascular changes.
12.Which of the following features differentiates a benign from a malignant
oral lesion?
A. Red color
B. Rapid growth with ulceration and induration
C. Presence on the tongue
D. Painful sensation
Rationale: Malignant lesions often demonstrate rapid progression,
ulceration, induration, and fixation to underlying tissue.
