1|Page
HYPERTENSION RELIAS EXAM ||VERIFIED EXAM!!||
MOST RECENT EXAM ACTUAL COMPLETE MOST
TESTED REAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED
SOLUTIONS|| ALREADY GRADED A+ | NEWEST
EXAM!!!
A 30-year-old G2P1 at 36 weeks is diagnosed with mild
gestational hypertension (blood pressure range 140-
150/90-95 mm Hg), and close maternal and fetal
outpatient monitoring is initiated. If the patient presents 1
week later with a persistent headache but no proteinuria,
how would your diagnosis change? - Answer-*Change the
diagnosis to severe gestational hypertension.
Change the diagnosis to preeclampsia with severe
features.
Change the diagnosis to preeclampsia without severe
features.
No change in diagnosis
Hematologic abnormalities are common clinical
manifestations of preeclampsia and other hypertensive
disorders of pregnancy. Which of the following statements
are accurate? - Answer-$.
,2|Page
*Hemolysis can result when red blood cells pass through
vasoconstricted microvasculature and become
fragmented.
*Thrombocytopenia can occur from the accelerated use of
platelets to form clots in damaged microvasculature.
Which of the following are considered major risk factors for
the development of preeclampsia?
Select 3 answers.
Chronic hypertension
Caucasian race
Cigarette smoking
Multiple gestation
Antiphospholipid syndrome - Answer-Chronic htx,
smoking, anti phospholipid
A 40-year-old G1P0 is admitted at 34 weeks' gestation
with a diagnosis of preeclampsia with severe features. The
patient's blood pressure is 170/110 mm Hg. Her nurse is
starting magnesium sulfate when the provider walks into
the room. The provider requests that the nurse give
labetalol 10 mg IV push. Which communication tool will
the nurse use in this situation?SBAR"Stop the Line"
,3|Page
phrase*CUSSValidate and VerifyShout out/call back -
Answer-SBAR
"Stop the Line" phrase
*CUSS
Validate and Verify
Which of the following statements are true about mode of
delivery in patients with preeclampsia/HIP?
Select all that apply.
Induction of labor is not recommended in patients with
HELLP syndrome.
Induction of labor should not be attempted in patients who
are on magnesium sulfate.
For women undergoing labor induction, the likelihood of
cesarean delivery increases with decreasing gestational
age.
Cesarean delivery rates are >90% when labor induction is
attempted at a gestational age <28 weeks.
If cesarean delivery is indicated, magnesium sulfate
should be discontinued during the procedure. - Answer-
Induction of labor is not recommended in patients with
HELLP syndrome.???
, 4|Page
For women undergoing labor induction, the likelihood of
cesarean delivery increases with decreasing gestational
age.???
Cesarean delivery rates are >90% when labor induction is
attempted at a gestational age <28 weeks.???
A 34-year-old G1 at 33 weeks with chronic hypertension is
admitted for further evaluation after a BP of 164/98 mm Hg
was found in the clinic. Her repeat BPs are in the 160s-
110s mm Hg and do not decrease with IV
antihypertensives. What are the next steps in her care? -
Answer-*Administer beta steroids and begin labor
induction.
*Start magnesium sulfate for seizure prophylaxis.
Cesarean delivery.
Stop IV antihypertensives, and convert to long-acting oral
antihypertensives.
Which of the following statements regarding the use of
low-dose aspirin for preeclampsia prevention is correct?
Select an answer.
Use of low-dose aspirin is associated with an increased
risk for placental abruption.
HYPERTENSION RELIAS EXAM ||VERIFIED EXAM!!||
MOST RECENT EXAM ACTUAL COMPLETE MOST
TESTED REAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED
SOLUTIONS|| ALREADY GRADED A+ | NEWEST
EXAM!!!
A 30-year-old G2P1 at 36 weeks is diagnosed with mild
gestational hypertension (blood pressure range 140-
150/90-95 mm Hg), and close maternal and fetal
outpatient monitoring is initiated. If the patient presents 1
week later with a persistent headache but no proteinuria,
how would your diagnosis change? - Answer-*Change the
diagnosis to severe gestational hypertension.
Change the diagnosis to preeclampsia with severe
features.
Change the diagnosis to preeclampsia without severe
features.
No change in diagnosis
Hematologic abnormalities are common clinical
manifestations of preeclampsia and other hypertensive
disorders of pregnancy. Which of the following statements
are accurate? - Answer-$.
,2|Page
*Hemolysis can result when red blood cells pass through
vasoconstricted microvasculature and become
fragmented.
*Thrombocytopenia can occur from the accelerated use of
platelets to form clots in damaged microvasculature.
Which of the following are considered major risk factors for
the development of preeclampsia?
Select 3 answers.
Chronic hypertension
Caucasian race
Cigarette smoking
Multiple gestation
Antiphospholipid syndrome - Answer-Chronic htx,
smoking, anti phospholipid
A 40-year-old G1P0 is admitted at 34 weeks' gestation
with a diagnosis of preeclampsia with severe features. The
patient's blood pressure is 170/110 mm Hg. Her nurse is
starting magnesium sulfate when the provider walks into
the room. The provider requests that the nurse give
labetalol 10 mg IV push. Which communication tool will
the nurse use in this situation?SBAR"Stop the Line"
,3|Page
phrase*CUSSValidate and VerifyShout out/call back -
Answer-SBAR
"Stop the Line" phrase
*CUSS
Validate and Verify
Which of the following statements are true about mode of
delivery in patients with preeclampsia/HIP?
Select all that apply.
Induction of labor is not recommended in patients with
HELLP syndrome.
Induction of labor should not be attempted in patients who
are on magnesium sulfate.
For women undergoing labor induction, the likelihood of
cesarean delivery increases with decreasing gestational
age.
Cesarean delivery rates are >90% when labor induction is
attempted at a gestational age <28 weeks.
If cesarean delivery is indicated, magnesium sulfate
should be discontinued during the procedure. - Answer-
Induction of labor is not recommended in patients with
HELLP syndrome.???
, 4|Page
For women undergoing labor induction, the likelihood of
cesarean delivery increases with decreasing gestational
age.???
Cesarean delivery rates are >90% when labor induction is
attempted at a gestational age <28 weeks.???
A 34-year-old G1 at 33 weeks with chronic hypertension is
admitted for further evaluation after a BP of 164/98 mm Hg
was found in the clinic. Her repeat BPs are in the 160s-
110s mm Hg and do not decrease with IV
antihypertensives. What are the next steps in her care? -
Answer-*Administer beta steroids and begin labor
induction.
*Start magnesium sulfate for seizure prophylaxis.
Cesarean delivery.
Stop IV antihypertensives, and convert to long-acting oral
antihypertensives.
Which of the following statements regarding the use of
low-dose aspirin for preeclampsia prevention is correct?
Select an answer.
Use of low-dose aspirin is associated with an increased
risk for placental abruption.
